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广西壮族自治区百色市2023-2024九年级上学期11月期中英语试题(含答案及听力原文无听力音频)

2023~2024学年度上学期阶段质量调研试题
九年级英语
(全卷满分120分, 考试时间 120分钟)
注意事项:
1. 答题前, 考生务必将姓名、 准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上。
2. 考生作答时, 请在答题卡上作答(答题注意事项见答题卡),在本试卷上作答无效。
3. 先考听力, 在听力开始前有两分钟听力试音时间。
一、 听力 (本大题共30小题,每小题1分,共30分)
(一) 听句子, 选图片。
你将听到五个句子,请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片,有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(二)听短对话,选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题,请根据对话内容,选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍
6. Where is the woman going
A. To a post office. B. To a library. C. To a bank.
7. What is the ruler made of
A. Steel. B. Silver. C. Wood.
8. Which festival is Betty's favorite
A. The Spring Festival. B. The Mid-Autumn Festival. C. The Lantern Festival.
9. How does the girl learn English
A. By listening to songs. B. By reading books. C. By watching movies.
10. What will the speakers do this weekend
A. Fly a kite. B. Play chess. C. Have a picnic.
(三) 听长对话,选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话, 请根据对话内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话, 回答第11至 13小题。
11. What should the man do when he walks to the end of the street
A. Turn right. B. Turn left. C. Go ahead.
12. Where is the subway station
A. Beside the white building. B. Behind the white building. C. Across from the white building.
13. How long will it take the man to walk to the su bway station
A. About 5 minutes. B. About 10 minutes. C. About 15 minutes.
请听第二段对话, 回答第14至 16小题。
14. How long has Frank lived in China
A. For three months. B. For four months. C. For five months.
15. What are they talking about
A. Traditional Chinese art. B. Traditional Chinese festival. C. Traditional Chinese food.
16. When will Lucy go to Frank's house
A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Tomorrow afternoon.
请听第三段对话, 回答第17至20 小题。
17. What does Sam think of the new city
A. It's boring. B. It's exciting. C. It's relaxing.
18. Which city did Sam live in before
A. London. B. Tokyo. C. New York.
19. Who moved with Sam
A. His brother. B. His wife. C. His dog Charles.
20. How many children does Helen have
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
(四) 听短文,选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. Where did Amy's family live before she was 12
A. In the mountains. B. In the city. C. In the town.
22. How long did Amy spend walking to school every morning
A. Half an hour. B. One hour. C. One and a half hours.
23. How many students were there in Amy's school
A.6. B. About 20. C. About 120.
24. What did Amy still remember now
A. Fish. B. Vegetables. C. Flowers, trees and birds.
25. What does Amy think about her life before
A. It was happy. B. It was boring. C. It was poor.
(五) 听短文,填信息。
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上,每空一词。短文读三遍。
Bringing Chess to All
Li Ziqi 26_ years old
Volunteer work He volunteered to _27_ primary school students in a village last summer.
He gave 10 chess lessons _28_ with rules and real games. The kids love the chess class very much. The kids now know that there are many _29_ of learning, not just learning from books.
He feels so proud. He also learned _30_ life lessons.
二、单项选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
31. ——My math is poor. Could you help me with it
—— .
A. Thank you B. Me, too C. No problem
32. ——Tim, this is one of your socks. Where is one
—I don't know, Mom. Maybe it's under the bed.
A. other B. another C. the other
33. It's important for students to hang out with good kids because students can be easily by their friends.
A. influenced B. punished C. interviewed
34. Sally is a(n) girl. She likes talking with others.
A. active B. quiet C. serious
35. ——Do you have any in Guilin ——Yes. My aunt and uncle work there.
A. classmates B. relatives C. friends
36. Your parents love you very much they seldom say, “I love you.”
A. even though B. so C. because
37. ——You look different now. ——Yes. I tenpounds after the summer holiday.
A. put up B. put off C. put on
38. The flowers on the farm twice a week and they grow very well.
A. water B. watered C. are watered
39. The summer vacation is coming. Don't swim in the lake, when you are alone.
A. probably B. especially C. exactly
40. ——Excuse me. Could you tell me ——At the new bookstore on the corner.
A. why you bought the book B. when you bought the book C. where you bought the book
三、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分, 共5分)
根据对话内容,从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话, 有一个选项是多余的。
A. How long did you stay in the forest
B. What do you think of the people there
C. Who did you go there with
D. Where did you go
E. Where have you been
F. You need to take more thick clothes.
A: Hello, Mike. How was your vacation
B: I really had a good time.
A: 41
B: I've been to a forest near my uncle's farm.
A: 42
B: I went there with my friends.
A: 43
B: For 3 days. I expect to go there again.
A: Lucky you. I had to stay at home. But I'm planning to travel to Mount Changbai.
B: Oh, that's a good place. I went there three years ago.
A: Can you give some advice on my trip to Mount Changbai
B: 44
A: OK,I'll do as you tell me. 45
B: They are friendly and you will enjoy yourself there.
四、完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面语篇, 从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出最佳选项。
What is the most difficult language for people to learn You 46 think it is English. But for many people,Chinese is one of the most difficult languages. It 47 about 2,200 hours to be a master(大师) of Chinese.
If someone studies Chinese for one hour every day, it will take 48 six years to learn the language well.
49 Chinese is difficult, a lot of people learn it because Chinese is one of the 50 languages. Here are some other difficult languages. How many 51 does it take to learn those languages well Japanese is as 52 as Chinese. It also takes as many as 2,200 hours to learn it well.
Russian(俄语) is difficult, too. A lot of people who dream of being astronauts want to learn 53 well.They have to spend 1,100 hours 54 it. How about German It may not be so difficult. If you want to learn it well, it 55 needs 750 hours. And if you can speak English well, you may learn German more easily.
46. A. can B. may C. must
47. A. takes B. feels C. makes
48.A.us B. them C. him or her
49. A. Because B. Although C. So
50. A. international B. national C. easy
51. A. dollars B. hours C. times
52. A. difficult B. interesting C. boring
53. A. English B. Chinese C. Russian
54. A. in B. at C. on
55. A. only B. also C. always
五、 阅读理解(本大题共20小题,第56~60 小题,每小题1分;第61~75小题,每小题2分,共35分)
A
There was once a farmer. He thought of a competition between his dog and his rabbit. He dug a hole in one of his biggest fields, and put a carrot and a bone in it. He wanted to see which animal would find them first.
The rabbit was very cheerful and believed in himself. He threw himself into looking for the carrot, digging here and there, and thought he would find it. But the dog smelt around for a bit, lay down and began to complain(抱怨) about how difficult it was to find one bone in such a big field.
The rabbit dug for hours. Every time the rabbit dug a new hole, the dog thought it was so difficult that he would never find the bone. So he just had a rest there and stopped looking for it. But the rabbit kept digging. Finally,the rabbit found the carrot and the bone.
The dog lost the game, because he only complained and didn't try at all.
根据语篇内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑,错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。
56. The competition was between the farmer and his two animals.
57. The farmer dug a hole because he wanted to put a carrot and a bone in it.
58. The rabbit was very cheerful and believed in himself.
59. The dog thought it's not difficult to find one bone in such a big field.
60. From this story, we've learned that we should believe in ourselves and keep on trying.
B
Many schools have increased the number of P. E. classes from three a week to five or even more. This is in response to(响应) China’s new standard(标准) on P. E. education. The standard also encourages schools to provide other popular sports and traditional Chinese sports.
根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
61. What do we know about Jiangcheng Middle School
A. Students there like many kinds of sports including jump rope.
B. You can learn a square dance when you are at school.
C. It has more P. E. classes than other schools in Jilin.
62. Why does Gao Yuxiang like tai chi
A. It is done in the water. B. It belongs to popular sports. C. It could relax his mind.
63. What does a hip-hop dance r need
A. Much experience. B. Teamwork. C. A world record.
64. What is the writer's main purpose in writing the passage
A. To compare(比较) traditional sports with popular sports.
B. To encourage schools to provide different sports.
C. To introduce the hip-hop dance to middle school students.
65. Where is the passage probably from
A. A newspaper. B. A history book. C. A novel.
C
At times, everything is going to go south on you. Maybe you can try your best to solve that. Maybe you na ve to accept that. You're going to say,“This is it.”“This is how I end.”
Let's read two stories about the super heroes from different countries. What did they do for their goals
Jingwei Tries to Fill up the Sea
Once upon a time, the youngest daughter of Emperor Yan, went boating on the Eastern Sea. While she was enjoying herself, a strong wind rose on the sea, and her boat sank to the sea. Her spirit turned into a beautiful bird after she died. She cried sadly in the sound“Jingwei, Jingwei”. That was why people called her“Jingwei”.
The bird lived on a mountain near the sea. She was so sad that she decided to fill up the sea. Every day,she flew between the mountain and the sea, carrying a stone or a tree branch from the mountain and dropping it into the sea.
One day, the sea said to Jingwei,“Poor little bird, stop doing that meaningless thing! You'll never fill me up.”Jingwei replied,“I’ll fill you up no doubt(怀疑)!I will, even if it will take me thousands of years! I’ll fight on without taking a rest.”
Robinson Crusoe
Robinson Crusoe is a main character from a novel named Robinson Crusoe.
When Robinson first arrived on the island, he had nothing. But he found the ship and made a small boat.He brought back many things he could use——food and drink, tools, knives and guns. Although he lost everything, he didn't lose his life. He kept working and waiting for another ship. He used the knife to cut down trees and built a house. He went with his gun almost every day to kill animals and birds for food. He learned to grow fruit and vegetables. He lived on the island for many years and he was saved finally.
根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
66. Who are the super heroes in the two stories
A. Animals and birds. B. Jingwei and Robinson. C. Emperor Yan and the Eastern Sea.
67. Why did people call the beautiful bird“Jingwei”
A. Because she cried sadly in the sound“Jingwei”.
B. Because her father gave her the name“Jingwei”.
C. Because the name of the mountain where she lived was“Jingwei”.
68. What did Robinson do with his knife in the passage
A. Grew fruit and vegetables. B. Killed animals and birds for food. C. Cut down trees to build a house.
69. Which of the following is TRUE
A. The sea thought Jingwei did the meaningful thing.
B. Jingwei decided to fill up the sea with stones and branches.
C. Robinson had some food and tools when he first arrived on the island.
70. What do the two stories tell us
A. People should never give up.
B. People should ask for help.
C. People should keep away from difficulties.
D
Shenzhou XVI spaceship successfully reached space on May 30, 2023. It marked the beginning of the Shenzhou XVI mission(任务).
There are three people on the spaceship:Jing Haipeng, 57;Zhu Yangzhu, 37 and Gui Haichao,37. There are some special facts about them. Jing is now the most experienced astronaut in China. This is the fourth time for him to fly into space. Zhu is an engineer and Gui is a scientist. Gui is also the first Chinese civilian who isn't a soldier on a spaceflight.
Both Zhu and Gui are China’s third-generation (第三代) astronauts. They were picked in 2020 from a group of researchers and engineers. One woman and seventeen men were picked. And they are in three groups. One group is spaceship pilots. They“fly”the spaceship. Another group is spaceflight engineers. They“fix”the spaceship. There is also a group of science specialists(载荷专家), such as Gui. They do scientific studies in space.
Gui’s glasses also draw people’s attention because astronauts aren’t usually nearsighted(近视的). But picking specialists is different from picking other astronauts. It's safe to wear glasses in the space station.However, during the launch (发射) and return, Gui needs to take off the glasses.
The astronauts will stay inside the Tiangong space station for around five months. They will return to Earth in November. They will do spacewalks, provide help when other spaceships visit the Tiangong space station and finish many science tasks in space.
根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
71. What does the underlined word“ civilian ”mean in Chinese in the second paragraph
A. 平民 B. 懦夫 C. 说客
72. What do we know about the third-generation astronauts
A. They are all men. B. There are 18 people of them. C. They are all spaceship pilots.
73. What is Gui Haichao's job this time
A. He flies the spaceship. B. He fixes the spaceship. C. He does scientific studies.
74. What question does Paragraph 4 answer
A. Why does Gui's glasses catch people's attention
B. How did Gui Haichao become an astronaut
C. Why can't nearsighted people go into space
75. What can we learn from the passage
A. Jing Haipeng has been to the space four times before 2023.
B. Zhu Yangzhu flies the spaceship to the Tiangong space station.
C. The three astronauts will be back to Earth in about five months.
六、选词填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据语篇内容,从方框中选择恰当的单词,并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
hard fall Chinese lovely also between become one country Before
This summer, many people watched the 31st FISU Summer World University Games(世界大学生运动会). From July 28 to August 8,6,500 student players from 113 76 and regions(地区) came together in Chengdu. The players were 77 18 and 27 years old.
In the matches, they tried 78 for medals(奖牌). Players got 269 gold medals and broke 22 records (纪录) for the Games this time.
It's all thanks to the young players' hard work and confidence(自信). One example is Chinese player Wu Yanni. 79 each match, the 26-year-old liked to turn her head around and point her fingers to the sky.She did it to show she wants to 80 stronger.
After matches, players were happy to learn about their differences. The players 81 got to visit pandas in Chengdu. On July 31, Italian player Mario Del Basso met pandas for the 82 time in real life. He even learned to say“come here”in 83 .“They are much more 84 than they are in videos,”said Basso.
They also loved the nice food. In Chengdu, many players 85 in love with chili powder(辣椒面).After the players left the city, they bought some chili powder back to their home countries.
七、书面表达(15分)
假设你是李华,你的美国朋友Tony对中华民族丰富多样的文化习俗很感兴趣。请你给他写一封电子邮件,向他简要介绍我们的传统节日————中秋节。
内容要点:
1.中秋节是中国传统的节日;
2. 活动:赏月,吃月饼,讲故事;
3. 你的感受,并邀请他有机会来中国和你过中秋节。
注意:
1. 词数为 80左右;
2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称;
4. 短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
参考词汇:The Mid-Autumn Festival(中秋节); lunar calendar(阴历);admire the moon(赏月)
Dear Tony,
I'm glad to receive your letter asking about the Mid-Autumn Festival.
Best wishes to you.
Yours,
Li Hua
2023~2024 学年度上学期阶段质量调研试题
九年级英语
听力材料及参考答案
英语听力测试
下面是听力试音时间。
M: Good morning, Cindy.
W: Good morning, Alex. You look happy today. What's new
M: I'm told our friend David came back from the US last weekend.
W: Really We haven't seen him for a long time.
M: That's true. Let's visit him and give him a big surprise.
W: But I'm afraid we'd better tell him about it first.
M: You're right. We're not supposed to visit him unexpectedly.
W: So why not call him now
M: I forgot his telephone number.
W: I think we can ask Gina. She is David's cousin. Maybe she knows his telephone number.
M: Good idea!
(播两遍)
试音到此结束。
英语听力考试现在开始。
(一) 听句子,选图片。
你将听到五个句子, 请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片, 有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. It's raining heavily.
2. The shirt is made of cotton.
3. In China, people go home for reunion at the Spring Festival.
4. Tom is playing basketball outside.
5. It's convenient to go shopping at the supermarket.
(二) 听短对话,选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,请根据对话内容,选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. W: Excuse me, is there a bank near here
M: Yes it's between the post office and the library.
7. M: Is the ruler made of wood
W: No, it is made of steel.
8. M: I like the spring festival.
W: My sister Betty likes it too, but the lantern festival is her favorite.
9. M: How did you improve your English By listening to English songs
W: No. I read a lot of English books.
10. W: Why don't we go for a picnic in Zhongsha n park this weekend
M: Good idea.
(三) 听长对话,选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话,请根据对话内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话,回答第 11 至 13 小题。
M: Excuse me, can you tell me the way to the nearest subway station
W: Sure. Walk along this street to the end and then turn right. You will see a white building.
M: Is it the subway station
W: No. The subway station is just across from the building.
M: Oh, I see. How long will it take me to walk there
W: About ten minutes.
M: Thank you for your help.
W: It's my pleasure.
请听第二段对话,回答第 14 至 16小题。
W: Hi, Frank. Have you learned about Chinese paper cutting
M: No, I haven't. I have lived in China for just four months. What is it about, Lucy
W: It is a kind of traditional art. People cut paper into different shapes.
M: Really What are the shapes about
W: They are about flowers, animals and things about Chinese history.
M: That's amazing. Can you show me some paper cutting
W: Of course. I'll take some to your house tomorrow afternoon.
请听第三段对话,回答第17至20小题。
W: Hi, Sam!
M: Helen, good to meet you.
W: Did you just arrive here
M: Yeah, we arrived last week.
W: How do you like it
M: It's exciting. It's busier than London. I was working in London before I came here.
W: Did you move here with your wife
M: No,I moved here with my dog Charles.
W: Oh,I see.
M: What about you
W: I have two children.
M: How old are they
W: Six and eight years old.
M: Oh, great. That age is a lot of fun.
W: But it is tiring.
M: Yeah, I understand.
(四) 听短文,选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
Hi, my name is Amy. Before I was 12 years old, my family lived in the mountains. Our house was far from my school. It took me one hour to walk to school every morning. It was a happy time for me, because I could meet friends on the way. And we would go to school together. There were just six classes in my school and only about twenty students in each class. We spent most of our time playing, in the mountains, or on our playground. I still remember the different kinds of flowers, the songs of different birds and the colors of trees and different seasons. Everything was so interesting and beautiful. Even now I still miss my life in the mountains.
(五)听短文,填信息。
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上,每空一词。短文读三遍。
Last summer, Li Ziqi joined a teaching activity in Xichang county, Sichuan. He is a 13-year-old boy from Chengdu Xichuan Middle School. He volunteered to teach primary school students in a village. Teachers were not enough in the village, so he wanted to give some classes to the kids there. His parents helped him. He gave 10 chess lessons carefully with rules and real games. The kids love the chess class very much. They now know that there are many ways of learning, not just learning from books. Li Zipi feels so proud of what he did. He also learned important life lessons. The kids there live a hard life, but they are hopeful about the future. That also helps him get over the difficulties in life.
英语听力考试到此结束,请同学们将听力答案转涂到答题卡上,然后继续做笔试部分的题目。
参考答案
1-5 AFDBC 6-10 CACBC 11-13 ACB 14-16 BAC 17-20 BACB 21-25 ABCCA
26 13/Thirteen 27 teach 28 carefully 29 ways 30 important
31-35 CCAAB 36-40 ACCBC 41-45 ECAFB 46-50 BACBA 51-55 BACCA
56-60 FTTFT 61-65 ACBBA 66-70 BACBA 71-75 ABCAC
76 countries 77 between 78 hard 79 Before 80 become
81 also 82 first 83 Chinese 84 lovely 85 fell
书面表达(15 分)
One possible version:
Dear Tony,
I'm glad to receive your letter asking about the Mid-Autumn Festival. I'm very glad to introduce this festival to you.
The festival falls on the 15th of the 8th lunar month. It is one of the most important traditional Chinese festivals with a long history of more than 2000 years. Usually, however far away we are, we will try to go home for the celebration. The moon that night looks the brightest in the whole lunar month. What we love most is to admire the moon together. We sit together and eat mooncakes and fruit, sharing our stories. In addition to these traditional activities, we also visit our relatives or friends.
I hope you can come to China and enjoy the festival with me.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分标准
一、 听力测试(26—30小题) 、选词填空(76—85 小题)
按参考答案评分,26—30小题,每小题单词拼写完全正确评1分,形式不对(含大小写错误)不予评分,不设小数点以下分值。76—85 小题,每小题单词拼写完全正确评1.5分,形式不对(含大小写错误)不予评分。
二、书面表达
1. 本题满分为15分,不设小数点以下分值。按五个档次评分(见下表)。
2.本题具有一定的开放性,考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥,但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
3. 评分时,先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况,初步确定其所属档次,然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次,最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算;单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分, 全文最多扣2分; 字数少于80词扣1分。
4. 文中若透露个人信息, 一律不予评分。
五级写作评分标准
档次 分数 评分标准
第五档 14~15分 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点,结构完整,语 句流畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法 和词汇错误极少(没有或仅有1处语法错误),格式正确,书写规范。
第四档 11~13分 较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点,结构较 完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少(有2~3处 语法错误),格式基本正确,书写较为规范。
第三档 8~10分 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整, 少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多(有 4~5处语法错误),格式基本正确,书写基本规范。
第二档 5~7分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完 整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多(有 6~7处语法错误),影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
第一档 0~4分 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整, 多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。

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