卷子答案网-一个不只有答案的网站2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试
英语
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有1个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读1遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1.Why did the woman go to Mallorca
A. To teach Spanish. B.To look for a job. C.To see a friend.
2. What does the man ask the woman to do
A.Take him to hospital. B.Go to a class with him. C. Submit a report for him.
3.Who will look after the children
A.Jennifer. B.Suzy. C.Marie.
4. What are the speakers going to do
A. Drive home. B. Go shopping. C.Eat out.
5.What are the speakers talking about
A. How to fry fish. B. How to make coffee. C. How to remove a bad smell.
第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.When does Gomez watch a football game on TV
A.When he fails to get a ticket. B.When the stadium is crowded. C.When his friends are too busy.
7. How much did Gomez pay for the football game last time
A.＄20. B.$25. C.$50.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did Alex do in the afternoon
A.He had a walk. B.He went hunting. C.He planted trees.
9. What did Alex bring back
A. Flowers. B. Leaves. C. Books.
10. What was Bob doing when Alex saw him
A.Fishing. B. Taking pictures. C.Swimming.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What did David do on his most recent holiday
A. He had a boat trip. B. He took a balloon flight. C. He climbed a mountain.
12. What is on David's list
A.Gifts he needed to buy. B.Things he wished to do. C.Dates he had to remember.
13. Where does the woman suggest David go for his next holiday
A. Australia. B.California. C.The Amazon.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14.Why did Sarah make the phone call
A. To ask a favor. B.To pass on a message. C.To make an appointment.
15. Where is Sarah now
A.In Brighton. B. At her home. C.At the Shelton Hotel.
16. What time is Michael leaving his place tomorrow morning
A.At 7:40. B.At 8:00. C.At 8:20.
17.What is the probable relationship between John and Sarah
A.Neighbors. B. Fellow workers. C.Husband and wife.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What do most people think is very important in spoken communication
A.Pronunciation. B.Vocabulary. C.Grammar.
19. Why should you listen to experts according to the speaker
ATo develop your reading fluency.
B.To improve your note-taking skills.
C.To find out your mispronunciations.
20. What is the speaker's last suggestion
A. Spell out the difficult words.
B.Check the words in a dictionary.
C.Practice reading the words aloud.
第二部分：阅读（共两节。满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分；满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
Grading Scale
90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
Essays (60%)
Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
Group Assignments (30%)
Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)
Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
Late Work
An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
1. Where is this text probably taken from
A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.
2. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date
A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.
C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了文学概论课程评分办法。
1题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章标题“Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature (文学概论课程评分办法)”和Essays (60%)部分“Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade of for this course (你的四篇主要文章将构成本课程评分的主要部分)”可知，文章介绍了文学概论课程评分办法。由此推知，本文是出自一个课程计划。故选C项。
【2题详解】
细节理解题。根据黑体小标题“Essays (60%)”以及“Group Assignments (30%)”和“Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Groups Work/Homework (10%)”可知，学生的最终成绩由3部分组成。故选B项。
【3题详解】
推理判断题。根据“Late Work”部分“If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. (如果没有在截止日期后的第4天上交，将会得到零分)”可知，如果在截止日期后一周才交文章，你将会得零分。故选A项。
【点睛】
B
Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.
In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away — from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”
If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.
Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.
4. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story
A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
C. We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
5. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test
A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.
C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.
6. What does Curtin’s company do
A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
C. It helps local farmers grow fruits. D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
7. What does Curtin suggest people do
A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.
C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.
【答案】4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了我们日常生活中的食物浪费现象以及华盛顿DC中央厨房的首席执行官科廷为解决食物浪费而采取的努力。
【4题详解】
推理判断题。根据第一段中的“Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste.(像我们大多数人一样，我努力关注那些被浪费的食物)”及“But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.(但随着时间的推移，芝麻菜变坏了。更糟糕的是，我不假思索地买了太多东西；我扔掉的东西可以做六份沙拉)”可推知，作者想通过讲述芝麻菜的故事来表明我们有时会无意间浪费食物。故选B项。
【5题详解】
细节理解题。根据第三段“Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other, resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”(生产没人吃的食物会浪费用于种植食物的水、燃料和其他资源。这使得食物浪费成为一个环境问题。事实上，罗伊特写道，“如果食物浪费是一个国家，它将是世界上第三大温室气体排放国。”)”可知，浪费食物的一个后果是对环境的危害。故选B项。
【6题详解】
细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中的“Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington. D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce, that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.(科廷是华盛顿DC中央厨房的首席执行官，该公司把食物复原，变成健康的食物。去年，该组织通过接受捐赠和收集有瑕疵的农产品，收回了超过807500磅的食物，否则这些农产品就会在地里腐烂。草莓呢？志愿者们将清洗、切割、冷冻或干燥它们，以便在路上的餐食中使用)”可知，科廷的公司用人们不想要的食物重新制作食物。故选D项。
【7题详解】
细节理解题。根据最后一段中的““Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.(“每个人都可以在减少浪费方面发挥作用，无论是在每周的购物中不购买不必要的食物，还是要求餐馆不包括你不吃的配菜，”科廷说)”可知，科廷建议人们只买需要的东西来避免浪费食物。故选A项。
【点睛】
C
The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ”
“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.”
“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
8. What is the purpose of the project
A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier
A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.
10. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7
A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs
A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.
C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了旨在减少孤独，改善老年人的健康状况的项目。
【8题详解】
细节理解题。根据第二段“The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing (该项目由当地一家慈善机构构想，旨在减少孤独，改善老年人的健康状况。)”可知，这个项目的目的是为了减少孤独和提高老年人的幸福感。故选D项。
【9题详解】
推理判断题。根据第五段““It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.” (有不同的关注点很好。人们把自己的孩子带进来看母鸡，居民们也来外面坐着看它们。我喜欢创造性的活动，做一些有用的事情的感觉很好。)”可知，Ruth Xavier很享受做这些事，她觉得自己在做有用的事，这能够给她来良好的感觉，因此可知通过该项目她获得了一种成就感。故选B项。
【10题详解】
词句猜测题。根据倒数第二段“Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.” (彭福街60号的额外护理经理Wendy Wilson是第一批参与该项目的人之一，她说：“居民们非常欢迎该项目的想法和创意会议。我们期待这个项目能给这里的人们带来好处和乐趣。”)”可知，Wendy Wilson是着手这项工程的人之一，也是做这个项目的创始人之一，因此可知，画线处embark on意为“开始着手做某事”，与C项“Begin (开始)”含义相近。故选C项。
【11题详解】
推理判断题。根据倒数第二段“Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here. (居民们非常欢迎该项目的想法和创意会议。我们期待这个项目能给这里的人们带来好处和乐趣。)”以及最后一段“Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.” (“诺丁山路径”的负责人林恩·刘易斯说：“我们很高兴能参与这个项目。它将通过共同的兴趣和创造性活动真正帮助我们的居民联系起来。”)”可知，该项目得到了居民们的认可，大家很欢迎这个项目，而且这个项目将会带来一些好处，因此可知这个项目的反响很好，很受欢迎。故选A项。
【点睛】
D
Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.
They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.
The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.
Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.
This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.
12. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on
A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its development.
13. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals
A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
B. They could not open and close their lips easily.
C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
14. What is paragraph 5 mainly about
A. Supporting evidence for the research results.
B. Potential application of the research findings.
C. A further explanation of the research methods.
D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.
15. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds
A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
【答案】12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍因为饮食的改变导致了现在在世界上一半的语言中发现了新的语音。
【12题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第二段中的“More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damian Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.(30多年前，学者Charles Hockett注意到，被称为唇齿音的语音，如“f”和“v”，在吃软食物的社会的语言中更常见。现在，瑞士苏黎世大学的Damian Blasi领导的一组研究人员发现了这一趋势产生的方式和原因)”可知，Damian Blasi的研究关注的是这一趋势是如何产生的以及产生的原因，可知他的研究重点是在语言的演变上。故选D项。
【13题详解】
细节理解题。根据第三段中“They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure , making it easier to produce such sounds.(他们发现，古人类的上门牙和下门牙是对齐的，因此很难产生唇齿音，唇齿音是通过下唇接触上牙齿而形成的。后来，我们的下颚变成了覆盖咬合结构，更容易发出这样的声音)”可知，因为古代成年人因为上下门牙是对齐的，他们的下颚结构跟现在的我们不一样，这就导致他们发不出这个唇齿音，也就是说他们的下颚结构使他们很难发出唇齿音。故选C项。
【14题详解】
主旨大意题。根据第五段中的“Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the so Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v”increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.(对语言数据库的分析也证实，在新石器时代之后，世界语言的发音发生了全球性的变化，在过去几千年里，“f”和“v”的使用显著增加。这些声音在今天许多狩猎采集者的语言中仍然没有发现)”可知，此段主要是通过介绍语言数据库的分析结果来证实语音是发生了很大变化，有些以前使用的语音，现在不一定找得到，因此此处主要是通过相关证据进一步证明研究结果。故选A项。
【15题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章最后一段中““The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.(研究小组成员Steven Moran说：“自从人类出现以来，我们使用的语音不一定保持稳定，我们今天发现的各种语音都是生物变化和文化进化等复杂相互作用的产物。”)”可知，人类的语意一直在发展变化中，并不会一成不变，而且会因生物变化和文化变化等进行复杂的相互作用而改变，因此可知Steven Moran认为语音是一个复杂的动态系统。故选C项。
【点睛】
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym, ” while another read: “___16___” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.
So, how do you find a workout partner
First of all, decide what you want from that person. ___17___ Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.
You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. ___18___ If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. ___19___
You and your partner will probably have different skills. ___20___ Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.
C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.
D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport
E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice
F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. F
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了如何找到一个一起锻炼的伙伴。
【16题详解】
根据前文“Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,”(《健身杂志》最近刊登了一篇题为《感谢健身伙伴的五个理由》的文章。一个理由是：“如果你知道有人在健身房等你，你就会去锻炼。”)”以及后文“With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition. (有一个锻炼伙伴，你将会努力训练，因为你们之间有一个微妙的竞争)”可知，空处陈述另一个和别人一起锻炼的理由，故选项应与后文是顺承关系，选项C中的“train with someone else”与后文的“With a workout partner”相对应，选项C“You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.(如果你和别人一起训练，你会更努力)”符合语意。故选C项。
【17题详解】
根据前文“First of all, decide what you want from that person. (首先，决定你想从那个人身上得到什么)”和后文“Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility (或者你只是想要身体健康，能够移动的力量和灵活性 )”可知，这里是一个问句，反问自己结伴锻炼的目的，故空处与后文是选择关系，你要知道你锻炼是为了什么。所以选项D“Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport (你想在你最喜欢的运动项目上成为更好的运动员吗 )”与后文在语意上构成选择关系。故选D项。
【18题详解】
根据前文“You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't result in a useful response. (你可能会考虑在社交媒体上发布你想要的东西，但可能不会得到有用的回应)”和后文“If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.(如果你打算在健身房锻炼，那个人一定是同一个健身房的)”可知，寻找的锻炼伙伴要具有便利性的特点。选项B中的“live close by”与后文的“belong to the same gym”相对应，选项B“A workout partner usually needs to live close by. (锻炼伙伴通常需要住在附近)”与下文是顺承关系。故选B项。
【19题详解】
根据前文“My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. (我的搭档把她的要求贴在了当地公园的布告栏上。她的注意事项包括她想要做什么样的锻炼，每周多少天，每次培训要花多少小时，以及她的年龄。它还列出了她最喜欢的运动和活动，并提供了她的电话号码)”可知，本段作者以自己的锻炼伙伴为例，说明寻找锻炼伙伴布告所要包括的信息。所以选项G“Any notice for a training partner should include such information. (任何锻炼伙伴的布告都应包括这些信息)”是对上文内容的总结，符合语意。故选G项。
【20题详解】
根据前文“You and your partner will probably have different skills. (你和你的伴侣可能有不同的技能)”和后文“Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other. (久而久之，你们双方都会受益—你的伴侣会举起更多的重量，你也会变得更健康。你们关系的核心是你们永远在一起互相帮助)”可知，要学会求同存异，一起合作，共同提高。选项F中的“differences”对应前文的“different skills”，选项中的“work with each other”对应后文的“be there to help each other”，故选项F“Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other. (接受你们的不同，学会彼此合作)”起到承上启下的作用，符合语意。故选F项。
【点睛】
第三部分 语言运用 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.
Some of our ___21___ are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we ___22___ along Chalk Creek. I was ___23___ that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was ___24___, and his crying let the whole campground know it. So ___25___ tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It ___26___ — he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.
Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we ___27___, but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly ___28___ our peaceful morning trip. The ___29___ picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to ______30______ the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No ______31______. We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there ______32______, a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were ______33______.
Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of ______34______, wondering what camping fun and ______35______ we will experience next.
21. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries
22. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled
23. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried
24. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid
25. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for
26. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed
27. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off
28. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded
29. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed
30. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix
31. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal
32. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly
33. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right
34. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement
35. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者和家人在旅行过程中经历过的趣事与冒险，并且作者和家人都十分期待即将经历的冒险。
【21题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：我们的一些记忆很有趣，尤其是在早些年我们的孩子很小的时候。A. ideas想法；B. jokes笑话；C. memories记忆；D. discoveries发现。根据上文“have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years”以及下文“especially from the early years when our children were little”可知，作者在讲述以前一些经历，这些经历回想起来很有趣，因此作者认为自己与家人一起冒险的一些记忆是有趣的。故选C项。
【22题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：有一次，我们沿着白垩溪露营。A. camped露营；B. drove开车；C. walked散步；D. cycled骑自行车。根据上文“My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.”可知，作者与家人在过去的十年来有着美妙的露营经历，而此处作者讲述的是其中的一次经历，他们一起在溪边露营。故选A项。
【23题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我担心我们15个月大的孩子会掉进小溪里。A. annoyed恼怒的；B. surprised惊讶的C. disappointed失望的；D. worried担心的。根据下文“I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot.”可知，作者把一根绳子系在儿子的腰上就是怕自己的孩子会掉进小溪里，所以可知作者对此是很担心的。故选D项。
【24题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意：他很不舒服，他的哭声让整个营地都知道了这一点。A. unhurt未受伤的；B. unfortunate不幸的；C. uncomfortable不舒服的；D. unafraid无所畏惧的。根据上文“I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot.”以及下文“his crying let the whole campground know it”可知，孩子之所以哭是因为身上被绑绳子而感觉不舒服。故选C项。
【25题详解】
考查介词短语辨析。句意：所以我没有把他绑起来，而是密切关注着他。A. due to由于；B. instead of代替，而不是；C. apart from除了；D. as for至于。根据上文“He was___4___, and his crying let the whole campground know it.”以及下文“I just kept a close eye on him”可知，因为孩子身上被绑绳子后感觉不舒服，所以作者换了另一种方式，选择密切关注他，而不是在他身上绑绳子。故选B项。
【26题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：它起作用了，他最终没有掉进小溪里。A. worked起作用；B. happened发生；C. mattered事关紧要；D. changed改变。根据下文“he didn’t end up in the creek.”可知，孩子没有掉进小溪里是因为作者在密切关注着他，以防他掉下去，因此可知作者采取的这种关注小孩而不是用绳子把他绑起来的方式起作用了。故选A项。
【27题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。句意：我们出发时，天空很晴朗，但山中风暴来势汹汹，风暴很快中断了我们平静的晨间旅行。A. signed up注册，报名；B. calmed down冷静下来；C. checked out退房，结账离开；D. headed off启程，出发。根据上文“The sky was clear”以及下文“but storms move in fast in the mountains”可知，天气突然变化，出发时还天气晴朗。故选D项。
【28题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：我们出发时，天空很晴朗，但山中风暴来势汹汹，风暴很快中断了我们平静的晨间旅行。A. arranged安排；B. interrupted中断；C. completed完成；D. recorded记录。根据上文“storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly”以及下文“our peaceful morning trips”可知，因为风暴来临，所以作者的旅行被迫中断了。故选B项。
【29题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：狂风大作，雷声隆隆。A. wind风；B. noise噪音；C. temperature温度；D. speed速度。根据上文“storms move in fast in the mountains”以及下文的“thunder rolled.”可知，天气变得很糟糕，大风刮了起来。故选A项。
【30题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意：我丈夫停止钓鱼来启动马达。A. find找到；B. hide隐藏；C. start启动；D. fix修理。根据下文“Nothing. He tried again.”以及“We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.”可知，作者他们被困在湖中央，是因为马达坏了，发动不起来，因此可知作者的丈夫尝试将船启动。故选C项。
【31题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：没有好运。A. luck好运；B. answer回答；C. wonder惊奇；D. signal信号。根据下文“We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.”可知，作者的丈夫再次尝试启动，船依然无法启动，因此可知他们运气很差，没有好运。故选A项。
【32题详解】
考查副词词义辨析。句意：当我们无助地坐在那里时，一个渔夫停了下来，扔给我们一根绳子并把我们拖了回来。A. patiently耐心地；B. tirelessly不知疲倦地；C. doubtfully怀疑地；D. helplessly无助地。根据上文“We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.”可知，在天气恶劣的情况下船无法启动了，作者与家人十分无助地坐着。故选D项。
【33题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我们安全了。A. sorry抱歉的；B. brave勇敢的；C. safe安全的；D. right正确的。根据上文“a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed us back”可知，作者他们得到了渔夫的帮助，因此作者和家人安全了。故选C项。
【34题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：现在，每年当我丈夫把露营车从车库里拉出来时，我们都会充满兴奋，想知道接下来我们会经历什么样的露营乐趣和冒险。A. relief救济；B. duty职责；C. pride自豪；D. excitement兴奋。根据上文的“Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage”以及下文的“wondering what camping fun”可知，作者他们一看到丈夫把露营车拉出来时，他们就会想知道接下来露营的乐趣是怎么样的，因此可知作者他们是期待接下来的露营，对此充满兴奋之情。故选D项。
【35题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意：现在，每年当我丈夫把露营车从车库里拉出来时，我们都会充满兴奋，想知道接下来我们会经历什么样的露营乐趣和冒险。A. failure失败；B. adventure冒险；C. performance表现；D. conflict冲突。根据上文“Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of___14___, wondering what camping fun and”以及下文“we will experience next”可知，作者与家人想知道下一次露营的乐趣是什么，因此也十分期待即将经历的冒险。故选B项。
【点睛】
第二节（共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park(GPNP). ___36___ (cover)an area about three times ___37___ size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that ___38___ (be)previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority ___39___ (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.
After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP ___40___ (design)to reflect the guiding principle of “protecting the authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, ___41___ leaving behind precious natural assets(资产)for future generations”. The GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate ___42___ (population)and homes of giant pandas, and ___43___ (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild.
Giant pandas also serve ___44___ an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species _____45_____ live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.
【答案】36. Covering
37. the 38. were
39. to increase
40. is designed
41. and 42. populations
43. eventually
44. as 45. that
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了中国政府决定建立的大熊猫国家公园(GPNP)的计划。
【36题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意：该公园占地面积约为黄石国家公园的三倍，将成为中国首批国家公园之一。分析句子可知，空处应填动词非谓语形式作状语，空处和逻辑主语the GPNP为主动关系，应用现在分词形式作状语，首字母大写。故填Covering。
37题详解】
考查冠词。句意：该公园占地面积约为黄石国家公园的三倍，将成为中国首批国家公园之一。分析句子可知，此处考查倍数表达法，即为：倍数+ the size of +比较成份，因此此处应填定冠词the。故填the。
【38题详解】
考查动词时态和主谓一致。句意：该计划将把保护范围扩大到大量以前未受保护的地区，将许多现有的大熊猫保护区纳入一个管理机构，以提高效率，减少管理上的不一致性。分析句子可知，空处在that引导的定语从句中作谓语，先行词为a significant number of areas，先行词在从句中作主语，根据“previously (之前地)”可知从句的时态应为一般过去时，根据主谓一致，从句主语复数，从句谓语要用复数形式。故填were。
【39题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意：该计划将把保护范围扩大到大量以前未受保护地区，将许多现有的大熊猫保护区纳入一个管理机构，以提高效率，减少管理上的不一致性。分析句子可知，空处应填动词非谓语形式作目的状语，故空处应用动词不定式作目的状语。故填to increase。
【40题详解】
考查时态语态和主谓一致。句意：GPNP旨在体现“保护自然生态系统的真实性和完整性，保护生物多样性，保护生态缓冲区，为子孙后代留下宝贵的自然资产”的指导原则。分析句子可知，空处在句中作谓语，和句子的主语The GPNP之间为被动关系；叙述客观事实，应用一般现在时。故设空处应为一般现在时的被动语态，主语单数，谓语应用单数形式。故填is designed。
【41题详解】
考查连词。句意：GPNP旨在体现“保护自然生态系统的真实性和完整性，保护生物多样性，保护生态缓冲区，为子孙后代留下宝贵的自然资产”的指导原则。分析句子可知，空处前后为并列关系，应用并列连词and。故填and。
【42题详解】
考查名词。句意：GPNP的主要目标是改善不同种群和大熊猫家园之间的联系，最终达到理想的野生大熊猫数量水平。分析句子可知，空处和and后的复数名词homes并列，且在句中作宾语，应用可数名词population ，意为“种群”，且应用复数形式。故填populations。
【43题详解】
考查副词。句意：GPNP的主要目标是改善不同种群和大熊猫家园之间的联系，最终达到理想的野生大熊猫数量水平。分析句子可知，空处后为动词achieve，空处应用副词作状语修饰动词achieve，结合语意可知，此处意为“最终”，应用副词eventually。故填eventually。
【44题详解】
考查介词。句意：大熊猫还扮演着保护伞的角色，为中国西南和西北地区的许多动植物带来保护。分析句子可知，此处考查固定短语serve as，意为“充当”，故空处应填介词as。故填as。
【45题详解】
考查定语从句。句意：该计划旨在为生活在Giant Panda Range的所有物种提供更有力的保护，并显著改善该地区的生态系统健康。分析句子可知，空处考查引导限制性定语从句的关系词，指代先行词species，指物，在从句中作主语，且先行词前有all修饰，故只能用关系代词that。故填that。
【点睛】
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：
1. 节目介绍；
2. 访谈的时间和话题。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Caroline,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
【答案】Dear Caroline,
This is my first time that I have invited you to attend our program —Talk and Talk. It is ten years since Talk and Talk was established. This is an amazing program where you can share your ideas with students. Now, when having trouble in learning English well, plenty of students urge to know how to deal with it. As our distinguished foreign language teacher, your aid can help us a lot. If you are available on this Sunday, I together with the whole Talk and Talk staff am waiting for your coming. I’d appreciate it if you take my invitation into consideration.
Yours,
Li Hua
【解析】
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生写一封邮件邀请你的外教Caroline来你校的广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”做一次访谈。
【详解】1.词汇积累
参加：attend→participate in
建立：establish→set up
帮助：aid→assistance
许多：plenty of→a lot of
2.句式拓展
简单句变复合句
原句：As our distinguished foreign language teacher, your aid can help us a lot.
拓展句：You are our distinguished foreign language teacher, whose aid can help us a lot.
【点睛】[高分句型1]This is an amazing program where you can share your ideas with students.(运用了where引导的限制性定语从句)
[高分句型2]Now, when having trouble in learning English well, plenty of students urge to know how to deal with it.(运用了when引导的时间状语从句的省略结构)
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.
I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
What was wrong He had worked so hard for this event!
I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.”
I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.
We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said gently and quietly, “No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire to challenge yourself, there is nothing to do with others’ thoughts.” He sat still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone. Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. His coach heard what David said and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone else’s.
I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young children, not to mention a child with a brain disease. David insisted on running as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for him. “Come on! You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the 20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally.
【解析】
【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，讲述了作者是一名特殊教育教师，在大型越野赛跑那天，发现患有大脑疾病的大卫独自站在一旁。作者问其原因，他说准备放弃比赛。从教练口中得知，因为担心同学们会嘲笑大卫，所以教练想让大卫自己去决定是否参加赛跑。作者让大卫追寻自己的内心，不理会别人的看法，大卫最终参赛，尽管遇到困难，他战胜了自己，这已经无关名次，而是他的勇敢和坚定让这一切成为可能。
【详解】1.段落续写：
①由第一段首句内容“我们挨着坐着，但大卫不愿看我一眼。”可知，第一段可描写作者鼓励大卫继续完成比赛，大卫经过强烈的心理斗争，最终决定参加比赛。
②由第二段首句内容“我看着大卫和其他选手一起走到起跑线上。”可知，第二段可描写大卫开始参赛，虽然中途遇到困难，仍然坚持到最后，完成比赛。
2.续写线索：鼓励大卫——心理变化——决定参赛——克服困难——加油助威——完成比赛——感悟
3.词汇激活：
行动类：
①深呼吸：with a deep breath/breathe deeply
②坚持做：insisted on doing/be stick to doing
情绪类：
①热情：enthusiastically /with great passion
②骄傲：be proud of/take pride in
【点睛】[高分句型1]You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here. (由which引导的非限制性定语从句和why引导的限制性定语从句)
[高分句型2]Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. (现在分词作状语和省略that的宾语从句)
[高分句型3]It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally. (由It was...that结构引导的强调句型)2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试
英语
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有1个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读1遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1.Why did the woman go to Mallorca
A. To teach Spanish. B.To look for a job. C.To see a friend.
2. What does the man ask the woman to do
A.Take him to hospital. B.Go to a class with him. C. Submit a report for him.
3.Who will look after the children
A.Jennifer. B.Suzy. C.Marie.
4. What are the speakers going to do
A. Drive home. B. Go shopping. C.Eat out.
5.What are the speakers talking about
A. How to fry fish. B. How to make coffee. C. How to remove a bad smell.
第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.When does Gomez watch a football game on TV
A.When he fails to get a ticket. B.When the stadium is crowded. C.When his friends are too busy.
7. How much did Gomez pay for the football game last time
A.＄20. B.$25. C.$50.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did Alex do in the afternoon
A.He had a walk. B.He went hunting. C.He planted trees.
9. What did Alex bring back
A. Flowers. B. Leaves. C. Books.
10. What was Bob doing when Alex saw him
A.Fishing. B. Taking pictures. C.Swimming.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What did David do on his most recent holiday
A. He had a boat trip. B. He took a balloon flight. C. He climbed a mountain.
12. What is on David's list
A.Gifts he needed to buy. B.Things he wished to do. C.Dates he had to remember.
13. Where does the woman suggest David go for his next holiday
A. Australia. B.California. C.The Amazon.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14.Why did Sarah make the phone call
A. To ask a favor. B.To pass on a message. C.To make an appointment.
15. Where is Sarah now
A.In Brighton. B. At her home. C.At the Shelton Hotel.
16. What time is Michael leaving his place tomorrow morning
A.At 7:40. B.At 8:00. C.At 8:20.
17.What is the probable relationship between John and Sarah
A.Neighbors. B. Fellow workers. C.Husband and wife.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What do most people think is very important in spoken communication
A.Pronunciation. B.Vocabulary. C.Grammar.
19. Why should you listen to experts according to the speaker
A.To develop your reading fluency.
B.To improve your note-taking skills.
CTo find out your mispronunciations.
20. What is the speaker's last suggestion
A. Spell out the difficult words.
B.Check the words in a dictionary.
C.Practice reading the words aloud.
第二部分：阅读（共两节。满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分；满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
Grading Scale
90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
Essays (60%)
Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
Group Assignments (30%)
Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)
Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
Late Work
An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
1. Where is this text probably taken from
A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.
2. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date
A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.
C You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.
B
Like most of us I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.
In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away — from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”
If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.
Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.
4. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story
A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
C. We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
5. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test
A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.
C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.
6 What does Curtin’s company do
A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
C. It helps local farmers grow fruits. D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
7. What does Curtin suggest people do
A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.
C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.
C
The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ”
“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.”
“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
8. What is the purpose of the project
A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier
A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.
10. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7
A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs
A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.
C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.
D
Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.
They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.
The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.
Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.
This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.
12. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on
A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its development.
13. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals
A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
B. They could not open and close their lips easily.
C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
14. What is paragraph 5 mainly about
A. Supporting evidence for the research results.
B. Potential application of the research findings.
C. A further explanation of the research methods.
D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.
15. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds
A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym, ” while another read: “___16___” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.
So, how do you find a workout partner
First of all, decide what you want from that person. ___17___ Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.
You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. ___18___ If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. ___19___
You and your partner will probably have different skills. ___20___ Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.
C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.
D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport
E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice
F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
第三部分 语言运用 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.
Some of our ___21___ are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we ___22___ along Chalk Creek. I was ___23___ that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was ___24___, and his crying let the whole campground know it. So ___25___ tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It ___26___ — he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.
Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we ___27___, but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly ___28___ our peaceful morning trip. The ___29___ picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to ______30______ the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No ______31______. We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there ______32______, a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were ______33______.
Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of ______34______, wondering what camping fun and ______35______ we will experience next.
21. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries
22. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled
23. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried
24. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid
25. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for
26. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed
27. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off
28. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded
29. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed
30. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix
31. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal
32. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly
33. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right
34. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement
35. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict
第二节（共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park(GPNP). ___36___ (cover)an area about three times ___37___ size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that ___38___ (be)previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority ___39___ (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.
After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP ___40___ (design)to reflect the guiding principle of “protecting the authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, ___41___ leaving behind precious natural assets(资产)for future generations”. The GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate ___42___ (population)and homes of giant pandas, and ___43___ (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild.
Giant pandas also serve ___44___ an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species _____45_____ live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：
1. 节目介绍；
2. 访谈的时间和话题。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Caroline,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.
I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
What was wrong He had worked so hard for this event!
I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.”
I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.
We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
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