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湖北省云学名校联盟2023-2024高二上学期期中联考英语试题(含解析无听力音频含听力原文)

2023年云学名校联盟高二年级 11月期中联考
英语参考答案
1-5 CACCA 6-10 CBCBB 11-15 CCABB 16-20 AABAB
21-23 BDC 24-27BDAC 28-31 DCBA 32-35 CCBA 36-40 FCAGE
41-45 ACBCA 46-50 DBCAD 51-55 DBCAB
56. to promote 57. issued 58. which 59. Taking 60. with
61. its 62. the 63. industries 64. will be established 65. better
应用文参考范文:
Dear Tom,
Knowing from your last letter that because your handwriting is not beautiful and tidy enough,
your composition scores in many tests are not ideal, which is your biggest trouble at present. I am
writing to tell you that your problem is very common among us students and that there are quite a
few ways to solve it.
First of all, you should practice handwriting according to a copybook and be patient at the
beginning, which can make sure your handwriting will get improved. In addition, turn to your
English teacher for help, who must be glad to give you some guidance. What’s the most, you should
stick to your practice, at least 20 minutes each day to make your progress stable. And gradually, you
can write beautifully in the limited time.
Hopefully, you will find my suggestions helpful. I’m looking forward to your good news.
Yours,
Li Hua
读后续写参考范文:
I decided to do everything to help them win the game. I shared with them the saying “Winners
are made, not born.” and said, “If we wanted to be winners, we must treat ourselves like winners!”
Hearing my words, great excitement shone in their eyes, they even couldn’t wait to begin training.
That summer, when the other teams enjoyed their vacations, we met every day and practiced
passing and kicking the football. That autumn, although their study was intense, I inspired my team
to attend extra training sessions and practice harder to coordinate their actions.
The autumn practice ended and again we faced the old team. In face of the previous winners,
my team wasn’t affected, looking very confident. All the players applied what they had learned to
this match and went all out to play every ball well. At the end of the game, our forward had a
chance to give a quick kick and the ball slid straight behind the goalkeeper. We won the game! Six
months after suffering our defeat on the spring practice field, we finally defeated the old team!
From the experience I learned a lot about how the attitude of the leader could affect the members of
a team.
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应用文写作【评分原则】
档次 描述
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
第五档
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;
(13— 15)
具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉 1、2 个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
第四档
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词
(10— 12)
汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
第三档 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
(7—9) —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
第二档 —语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
(4—6) —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺乏连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
第一档 —语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
(1—3) —较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或
0
所写内容无法看清。
内容参考要点:
表示理解
对 Tom因为书写不够美观整洁在考试中作文得分不理想的困扰表示理解并安慰。
提出建议
结合个人实践、同学交流或者老师教授的训练书写的方法给出 2-3 点建议。
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表达希望
结构及语言
1. 段落结构清晰(3 段),注意过渡和衔接;
2. 时态(一般现在时为主);
3. 人称准确 ;
4. 词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性、多样性 。
词数少于 60 从总分中减去 2分,如书写较差以致影响交际则将分数降低一个档次。
英语读后续写评分标准
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为 25分,按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时,从以下四个方面考虑:
1)内容:内容的丰富性、故事发展的合理性,续写的完整性及与原文语境的融合程度;
2)词汇语法:使用语言的多样性、准确性和恰当性;(语言为交际服务,不可一味使用所谓“高
级”语言,要与原文语言特点保持一致。)
3)篇章结构:上下文的衔接(包括续写段落之间的衔接)和全文的连贯性;
4)写作规范:
① 词数少于 130的,扣 2分;
② 拼写和标点符号是写作规范的一个方面,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑,
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受;
③ 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次;
3.评分时,先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,确定或
调整档次,最后给分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21-25 分)完全达到了预期的写作目的。
● 与所给短文融合度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;
● 内容丰富,故事发展合理、逻辑性强,续写完整,符合写作目的与情境;
● 所使用语法结构和词汇多样、准确和恰当,可能有个别错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
● 有效地使用了语句间的连接手段,结构清晰,意义连贯。
第四档(16-20 分)达到了预期的写作目的。
● 与所给短文融合度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理;
● 内容比较丰富,故事发展比较合理、有逻辑性,续写比较完整,比较符合写作目的与情境;
● 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
● 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接手段,结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档(11-15 分)整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
● 与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
● 写出了若干有关内容,故事发展有合理之处、有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,基本符合写作目的与
情境;
● 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义的表达;
● 应用简单的语句间的连接手段,结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档(6-10分)未能达到预期的写作目的。
● 与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
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● 写出了一些有关内容,故事发展不太合理、逻辑性差,不太符合写作目的与情境;
● 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,错误较多,影响了意义的表达;
● 较少使用语句间的连接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯。
第一档(1-5分)完全未达到预期的写作目的。
● 与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差;
● 产出无关内容太多,故事发展不合理、不合逻辑,续写不完整,不符合写作目的与情境;
● 语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,错误很多,严重影响了意义的表达;
● 缺乏语句间的连接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
0分
● 未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
建议:读后续写按情节和语言两块给分。情节要续得上,语言要地道,有主题升华的适当加分。
开头用非谓语动词的适当加分。结尾用强调句升华主题可适当加分。
【答案详解】
【A篇】文章主要介绍了 Marist School的申请过程和相关重要日期,并提到了使用 Ravenna
作为申请管理系统,相关事宜都通过该系统处理。
21. B 根据文章标题和内容可知这是一份申请指南。
22. D 根据第二段内容可知,家长可以通过系统 Ravenna访问申请表、提交支持材料、跟踪
申请状态并查看录取决定。所以它是用于帮助处理入学申请事宜。
23. C 根据表格内容可知,申请者提交补充材料的截至日期是 February 1, 2024。
【B篇】本文是传记类记叙文,介绍 “杂交玉蜀黍之父” George Shull 的生平,涉及他的教育
背景、工作经历,特别是他在杂交玉米育种方面作出的突破性贡献。
24. B 细节推断题。根据第一段最后一句可知。
25. D 细节理解题。根据第三段最后两句的句意:“纯种的玉米不太健康,产量也不高,但
是当他把纯种玉米进行杂交时,产量高于任何亲本或在野外授粉的玉米。他马上意识到用这
个方法提高玉米产量的可能性。”可知他育种的方法就是把纯种玉米进行杂交。
26. A 推理判断题。本文采用传记体文章的常用手法,以时间为序,记述人物的生平事迹,A
项符合题意。
27. C 推理判断题。综观全文,尤其是根据第 3段的主要内容可知,George Shull培育的杂交
玉米的产量高于任何其它品种的玉米,这是对世界突破性的、创新性的贡献,C项符合题意。
A. conventional 传统的,常规的 ; B. common 普通的,常见的;C. innovative 创新的;D.
insignificant没有意义的。
【C篇】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍研究发现肢体动作可以让学习更容易、更快速、记忆
更持久。
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28. D 猜测词义题。第二段第二句句意出现转折:“但实际上,物质世界从未真正离开我们
的思维。”第三句紧接着举例说明,“当我们的大脑在加工 lick, kick, pick之类的动词时,相
关的肌肉也变得活跃。” 可见,抽象思维不可能脱离具体体验。因此,划线句所表达的意思
应该和下文形成对比。根据句意:“传统的观点认为随着我们长大,我们的抽象思维能力随
之增强,这可能建议教师应该帮助孩子摆脱使用肢体动作的习惯,为进入成人世界做好准备。”
故选 D。
29. C 推理判断题。根据第三段第一句句意:“这种理论被称为体验认知,它表明我们大脑
里面发生的事情来自于我们的行为,以及与我们周围的世界的相互作用。”可知,选 C. The
environment is important for one’s cognition. (环境对我们的认知很重要。)
30. B 细节理解题。根据第四段第三句句意: Kelly还发现有证据表明,当老师用手臂和手的
动作来强调重点时,学生更喜欢老师。) 可知,选 B. Body movements can raise a teacher’s
popularity(肢体动作能让老师更受欢迎)。
31. A 主旨要义题。综观全文,第一段开门见山,简要介绍研究新发现—学习如果与肢体动作
相关联,就会变得更容易、更快速、记忆更持久。第二、三段具体介绍“体验认知”理论,
该理论表明,我们大脑里面所发生的事(即抽象思维)来自于我们的行为以及与周围世界的
相互作用。第四段采用两位心理学家 Spencer Kelly和 Susan Wagner Cook的研究成果作为例
证,证明肢体动作对学习的积极影响。因此,本文主要内容是关于学习的一项新发现,选 A。
【D篇】 本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍的是来自伦敦大学的健康心理学家 Phillippa Lally通
过研究推翻了人们所认同的 21天养成新习惯的理论,他们团队研究发现形成新均需要
66天,个体差异巨大。
32. C 细节理解题。根据第一段第二、三句句意: “在治疗接受面部重建手术的病人时,马尔
茨注意到,他们通常需要大约三周的时间来适应在镜子里看到自己的新面孔。他还发现,失
去肢体的人在大约 21天的时间里,仍然会在失去的手臂或腿上感到幻痛。” 以及第二段第一
句句意:“基于这些对重大身体变化后恢复时间的认知,Maltz在他的书中提出了一个理论,
即我们大脑中与旧行为和习惯相关的神经通路可能需要至少 21天的时间才能消失,新的心理
图像和常规需要 21天的时间才能牢固地扎根。”可知,Maltz基于这些对重大身体变化后恢
复时间的认知得出这个结论,由此可知,他的假设应该是基于个人观察。故选 C。
33. C 推理判断题。根据第三段第一句的句意:“然而,Maltz是在进行因果推论,而不是进
行严格的科学研究。”可知,Maltz的结论是推断出来的,而没有进行科学研究,结合下一句
句意:“直到 2010年,伦敦大学学院的健康心理学家 Phillippa Lally才决定适当地研究习惯
形成的时间表。”由此可知,Lally的团队进行研究的原因是认为Maltz的新习惯养成的时间结
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论不科学,所以他们要通过研究确定形成新习惯的时间表。故选 C项。
34. B 细节理解题。根据倒数第二段第一句句意:“Lally的研究结果显示,一个均需
要 66天才能成为日常生活的一部分,并让人觉得是自然而然的。但结果差异很大,个体之间
的习惯形成时间从 18天到 254天不等。”由此可知,Lally的研究发现,习惯的形成有很大的
个体差异。故选 B项。
35. A主旨大意题。本文第一二段中介绍了Maltz 通过观察发现人们需要 21天形成一个新习
惯,该结论被人们广泛接受;第三、四段介绍伦敦大学学院的健康心理学家 Phillippa Lally通
过严格的科学研究发现,一个习惯成为生活中的一部分平均需要 66天,但是个体差异很大;
再结合尾段句意:“这项具有里程碑意义的研究推翻了假定的 21天标准,并表明大范围的时
间线是正常的。”可知,这一新的研究推翻了之前人们广泛接受的形成习惯需要 21天的理论。
所以本文的题目为“养成一个新习惯真的需要 21天吗?”符合本文的内容,且概括了全文的主
题。故选 A项。
【七选五】这是一篇说明文,主题语境是人与自我。文章主要从四个方面介绍克服拖延症的方
法。
36. F 过渡句。根据空前句子句意“我们一般都有一天或一周的目标,完成他们并不费力。” 、
空后句子句意“如果我们的目标任务是老板确定的、我们必须完成但似乎不能达成,怎么办
呢?”及后一句的连续设问可知,本题在逻辑意义上出现了转折,E项“面对更大的、我们
不想首先完成的目标怎么办?”承上启下,符合语境。
37. C 解释句。 根据空前句意,尤其是句中的 the first step可知,此处应说明下一步怎么办,
C项中的 Then是表示顺序的副词,符合语境。
38. A段落小标题。根据第一句句意:“从制定可靠的计划需要优先确定的步骤开始。”可知,
本段主要内容是关于如何制定计划,A项Make a new plan符合。
39. G 段落主题句。根据本段的小标题可知,本段重点讲如何 Establish new habits(形成新的
习惯),G项中的 Forming a habit和标题意思相近。
40. E 段落总结句。根据本段的小标题 Take action (采取行动),第一句中的 Become a doer
(成为行动者),以及空前句中的 find a way to get going and do it(找到开始做起来的办法)
等关键信息,可知 E项 “如果你真的想实现目标,没有什么能代替行动。”是总结本段,强
调行动的重要性。
【完形填空】本文是一篇记叙文。作者叙述了她一生中最重要的一天发生的事---她的老师安
妮沙莉文走进了她的生活,用特殊的方法教她认字,使她心中充满快乐和自信。
41. A 根据文章第一段中的 the most important,以及本句中的 unusual可知,这一天非常重要。
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A. important重要的; B. normal正常的; C. potential可能的, 潜在的; D. enormous巨大的,极大
的。A符合语境。
42. C 句意:“在这重要的一天的下午,从屋里来来往往的匆忙中,我猜到有什么不寻常的
事情要发生了,于是我走到门口,在台阶上默默等待,心中满怀期待。”A. bowed弯腰;B. fled
逃跑;C. waited等待;D. posed摆好。C符合语境。
43. B 句意:在接受正式教育之前,我就像那艘漂荡在迷雾中的船,没有指南针,也无从知晓目的
地的远近,所以感到 tense(紧张的)and anxious(焦虑的),B符合语境。A. excellent优秀
的;C. incredible 难以置信的;D. artificial人工的,人造的,假的。
44. C 参见上题解析。根据空格前的“not knowing how near”( 不知道有多近)和前面提到的
ship,可知应该是船靠岸的目的地。A. direction方向; B. route 路线; C. destination目的地; D.
tunnel隧道。C符合语境。
45. A 根据第四段第三句 Someone took it, and I was held close in the arms of her who had come
to 48.reveal all things to me, and more than all things else, to love me. (有个人抓住了我的手,我
被她紧紧地抱在怀中,她来向我揭示万事万物,更重要的是,来爱我。)句尾的 love提示本题,
爱是作者内心深处的渴求,而就在那一天,老师来了,“老师爱的光芒在那一刻照亮了我”,A
选项 love符合语境。B. favour帮助,恩惠;C. vision 视力,视野;D. pain痛苦。
46. D 句意:我感觉到了走近的脚步声,我伸出手,就像迎接母亲那样。结合文意,是我等
待的老师到来了,D. approaching接近,来临,符合语境。 A. warning警告;B. expanding扩
大; C. wandering徘徊。
47. B 句意参看上题解析。A. if如果;B. as 此处意为“像,如同”,用作连词。C. except 除
了;D. what什么。B符合语境。
48. C 句意参看 45题解析。结合文章最后一段,老师教我认字,用知识和爱的火炬引领我穿
过迷雾,帮助我认识万物,向我展示世间一切。因此,C. reveal (sth to sb.)“(向某人)揭示(某物)”
符合语境。A. share (sth with sth)分享; B. devote (sth./oneself to sb/sth)把...献给,把...专用于;D.
witness见证,目睹。
49. A 根据下文When I had played with it a little while, she slowly spelled into my hand the word
“d-o-l-l”. 可知老师是在我的手上拼写的单词是 doll。
50. D 根据后文“and tried to imitate it(努力模仿它)”可知,我对这种手指游戏很感兴趣,D.
interested符合语境。A. distinct清晰的;B. efficient 效率高的;C. accurate精确的。
51. D 根据后文,我跑下楼向妈妈展示 doll这个词的拼写,可知我心情激动,“难以抑制我
孩子气的快乐和自豪”,因此 D项 was overcome with“受到(情绪等)的强烈影响,充满...”符合
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语境。A. was ashamed of因...羞愧;B. was committed to 致力于 C. was comprised of由...组成。
52. B 根据本段第二、三句可知,老师是在我的手上拼写单词,因此,当我终于学会拼写 doll
之后,我跑下楼,举起手,在手上向妈妈展示如何写这些字母,所以选 B。A. chin下巴;B. hand
手;C. cheek脸颊;D. chest胸部。
53. C 句意:在随后的几天里,我用这种懵懂的/不理解的方式学会了拼写很多词,其中有像 pin,
hat, cup这样的词。among “在...当中,...的其中之一”符合语境。A. over在...上面; B. within在
(时间、距离、范围)之内;D. during在...期间。
54. A 前文说我不知道我正在拼写单词,甚至不知道有这些词的存在,只是像猴子一样机械
模仿拼写(而并不理解这些词的意思)。但是当我知道每件东西都有一个名字时,好几个星
期都已经过去了。此处 But用作并列连词,表示转折,暗示作者明白这一点很不容易。故 A
项符合语境。 B. While 与...同时;C. Though尽管;D. Hence因此。
55. B 句意参见上题解析。再根据上文 In the days that followed I learned to spell ...a great many
words, among them pin, hat and cup.中的 pin, hat and cup 可知,这些单词都是物件的名称
(name),故选 B。A. role角色,作用;C. theme主题;D. credit 信用,学分。
【语篇填空】本文介绍了中国将在新疆维吾尔自治区设立自由贸易试验区,以促进中西部高
质量发展,更好地为“一带一路”服务。
56. to promote 考查不定式作目的状语。
57. issued 考查过去分词短语作后置定语。
58. which 考查引导非限制性定语从句的关系代词,空格处缺主语。
59. Taking 考查现在分词作方式状语。
60. with 考查介词搭配。......exchanges and cooperation with neighboring countries......和相邻国家
的交流合作。
61. its 考查 it的形容词性物主代词。
62. the 考查定冠词,表示特指。
63. industries 考查名词变复数。
64. will be established 考查谓语动词的时态和语态。根据下文的时间状语 in three to five years
可以判断该句时态是一般将来时,主语 A high-quality FTZ与动词 establish是被动关系。
65. better 考查形容词的比较级。由前文的 greater可以判断。
【听力材料】
Text 1
M: Coming to work on a bike You don't need to lose weight, do you
W: No, but I missed my bus this morning, and I wouldn't dream of paying a fortune for a taxi.
英语试卷答案 第 8 页 共 10 页
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(1)
Text 2
M: You need to eat better. You can’t just have a biscuit for breakfast. Here, eat some yogurt.
W: I'm in a rush. Don't worry. I'll grab a sandwich for lunch (2) .
Text 3
W: How about we go for a walk around the park once we drop off the kids at the swimming pool
M: Or we could go for a drive along the coast. We can see some birds.
W: That is a better idea! (3)
Text 4
M: Where was this picture taken Your family look very happy in the picture.
W: It was taken in a coffee shop(4). We had such a good time in France that year. We spent a week
in the mountains and a week next to the beach.
Text 5
W: Do you need some help You look a little lost.
M: Yes, that would be lovely. I'm a bit upset. I'm on holiday, but I can't remember where my
hotel is(5). I've been wandering for almost an hour.
Text 6
W: Hi, there. I'm looking for a specific size of battery. (6) It’s to fit my father’s old watch.
M: Let me get my glasses so I can have a look. It’s an old one. I'm not sure if the factory still makes
them.
W: Are you able to check on your system It’s for my father's birthday.
M: Certainly. The factory still makes them, but we don't sell them in our store. (7) W: Can you
recommend somewhere that might have them
M: Yes, there’s a specialist shop on the next street. I don't know how expensive they will be, though.
Text 7
W:Ah, Mr. Taylor. This is my brother, Peter. (8) Have you met before
M: Well, I thought we had at first. He is your father's double - a younger version maybe. (8)
W: Do you know my father well
M: Oh yes, and your mother. We used to meet at my aunt's house and play games when we were
younger.
W: So you were good friends
M: We were, but then we lost touch when your father started work. Later I met your mother and
father again and we often stop and chat.
W: Peter is 16—2 years younger than me. (9)
M: Really Do you know my daughter, Kathy She is 19.
W: I know her by sight but I haven't spoken to her.
Text 8 (第 10题为总结题)
W: I really want to use green energy at home(10), but do you think this will work in our climate
M: I'm certain it will. As long as the units on the roof face south, they will catch enough sunlight to
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create power.
W: Well, with all the rain we get here, wouldn't it be better to use a water wheel to make electricity
M: Ha-ha. I think you'd need a river for that.
W:My colleague Anna wants to use wind power. (11) Isn't that better for us
M: That needs a bigger house. Those things take up a lot of space.
W: Well, listen. I am interested in your product. Can I discuss it with my husband (12)
M: Of course. And remember, if you order before July, you will get a 10% discount. (12)
Text 9
M: Hello, Mary. Welcome to my show. (13)
W: It’s my honor to be here.
M: I have been a big follower of your works for many years, Mary. I've read every single one of
your books. I have probably seen almost every show you have ever written, too. Is it true that
you will be directing a movie this year (14)
W: It is true. We haven't started to film yet, but I will be a director in a few months. (14) We
should be looking at filming locations next week actually.
M: Where might you be looking Hawaii is beautiful this time of year. If I had the money, I would
go south and get away from this cold country during winter.
W: I usually do leave Vancouver for the winter months. But my work makes me stay here in
Vancouver this year. Hawaii is nice, but the movie will be using a big city theme. I think
Hong Kong will be where we will end up(15).
M: That's great. Can you tell me a little about the movie I don't need to know about the title or
actors.
W: I can only tell you it will be an action film. (16)
Text 10
Work has finally started to rebuild the Glasgow School of Art, which was destroyed by a
fire in June 2018. This was the second fire to have hit the school, (17) with the first one almost 4
years earlier in May 2014, which destroyed the inside but allowed the building to be saved. The
second fire left the building structurally unsafe, meaning that the entire building had to be knocked
down. The school was originally designed by the famous architect Charles Rennie Mackintosh in
1896. The first half of the building was finished in 1899 (18), and the second half was finished a
decade later.Well-known graduates include actor and director Peter Capaldi, painter Stephen
Conroy, and poet Liz Lochhead. (19) Designers from Steven Holl Architects are confident to
recreate the building as it was originally designed. (20) They already designed the new art school
building, known as Phase One, which sits across from Mackintosh building. The modern building
will be used as the main building until the work is finished.
英语试卷答案 第 10 页 共 10 页
{#{QQABbQCAogggAgBAARgCQwUSCAGQkBAACKoOgEAAoAAAAQFABCA=}#}2023年云学名校联盟高二年级11月期中联考
英语试卷
命题学校:沙市中学
考试时间: 2023年11月23日 08: 00 ~ 10: 00 时长: 120分钟 满分: 150分
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How did the woman get to work this morning
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. By bike.
2. What does the woman have for lunch
A. A sandwich. B. A biscuit. C. Some yogurt.
3. What are the speakers going to do
A. Take a walk in the park.
B. Go swimming in a pool.
C. See some birds along the coast.
4. Where was this picture taken
A. On the beach. B. In the mountains. C. In a coffee shop.
5. Why was the man upset
A. He couldn't find his hotel.
B. His holiday was boring.
C. He waited for hours.
第二节 (共 15 小题; 每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6至7 题。
6. What is the woman trying to buy
A. A watch. B. Glasses. C. A battery.
7. What problem does the woman face
A. The item is expensive.
B. The man's store doesn't sell the item.
C. The factory doesn't make the item anymore.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至9题。
8. Who does Peter look like
A. His aunt. B. His mother. C. His father.
9. How old is the woman
A.16 years old. B.18 years old. C. 19 years old.
听第8段材料, 回答第10至 12题。
10. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Weather. B. Green energy. C. House decoration.
11. What kind of power does Anna want to use
A. Sun. B. Water. C. Wind.
12. What's the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers. B. Husband and wife. C. Salesman and customer.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至 16题。
13. Who is the man
A. A host. B. A writer. C. A director.
14. When will the woman begin to direct the movie
A. In a few years. B. In a few months. C. In a few weeks.
15. Where will they finish filming
A. In New York. B. In Hong Kong. C. In Vancouver.
16. What did the woman tell the man about the movie
A. The type. B. The title. C. The actors.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. How many fires have occurred at the Glasgow School of Art
A.2. B.3. C.4.
18. When was the first half of the building finished
A.1896. B.1899. C.1909.
19. Who graduated from the Glasgow School of Art
A. Peter Capaldi. B. Steven Holl. C. Charles Mackintosh.
20. What are the architects going to do
A. Wait for a structure report.
B. Recreate the original building.
C. Set up a new school of art.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中 ,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Apply for the 2024-2025 School Year
We are excited you are considering Marist School for your child's next year. Marist has two main entry points for students in 7th and 9th grades to which we typically accept 150 and 50students respectively(分别地).
Marist School uses Ravenna, an application management system, for all aspects of the admission process. Through Ravenna, parents can access the Marist application, submit supporting materials, track application status (状况), and view admission decisions. Our application for the2024 -2025 school year will be available late September with a January 22,2024 deadline.
Importantly, Marist continues to require the SSAT as part of the application process. On Saturday, January 6, 2024, Marist will serve as a community test site for the SSAT. This is the last national testing day before our application deadline when a first set of SSAT scores is due.
Important Dates
September 2023-March 2024 Marist School admissions events
Late September 2023 Marist 2024 -2025 application available in Ravenna
October 2023-January 2024 Required SSAT testing
December 3,2023 Open House
January 22,2024 Deadline to apply to Marist; preliminary ( 初 步 的 )application and fee, parent and student questionnaires, and a first set of SSAT scores are due
February 1,2024 Deadline for Marist to receive any outstanding supplemental materials, and teacher evaluations are due
February 12,2024 Deadline to submit separate tuition assistance application
March 30,2024 AAAIS common notification date
April 11,2024 Deadline to respond to offer of admission
21. What is the text
A. A course schedule. B. An application guide.
C. An academic article. D. A commercial advertisement.
22. What a parent can do through Ravenna
A. Take the first set of the SSAT test. B. Register a total of 200 students.
C. Interact with teachers offline. D. Deal with all parts of the applications.
23. Applicants can submit their supplemental materials by .
A. December 3,2023. B. January 22,2024.
C. February 1,2024. D. March 30,2024.
B
George Shull was born in 1874 on a farm in Clark County, Ohio, and his knowledge of plants and hybrids came at an early age. Being needed on the farm, Shull received his early formal education off and on. However, it was supplemented(增补) by intense home study so that by 1892he was teaching in a public school, and later attending Antioch College.
In 1901, he graduated from Antioch and went to the University of Chicago to do graduate work. With his knowledge of botany and experience with farming practices, Shull passed a Civil Service exam, and was appointed as a botanical assistant at the U. S. National Herbarium. After earning her doctorate, he was appointed to be in charge of plant work at the Station for Experimental Evolution in 1904.
He began working on corn in 1905. Following Gregor Mendel’s example, Shull obtained purebred(纯种的) strains of corn through self-pollination. The purebred strains were less healthy and productive, but when he crossed the purebred strains, the hybrid yields were better than any of the parents or those pollinated in the open fields. He immediately recognized the potential for using this strategy to improve crop yields.
In 1915, Shull accepted a professorship at Princeton University. With his encouragement, Princeton University Press began the publication of a new journal, Genetics. Shull was the managing editor for ten years. Genetics is still one of the top international science journals.
Shull retired in 1942. He and his wife spent most of their later years with their children and grandchildren.
24. What can we infer from paragraph 1 and 2
A. George Shull hated formal education.
B. George Shull benefited from his home study.
C. George Shull had no farming work experience.
D. George Shull worked as a botanical expert at college.
25. What do we know about George Shull's method of corn breeding
A. It was accepted worldwide.
B. It was first published in Genetics.
C. It completely relied on self-pollination.
D. It focused on crossing purebred strains.
26. How does the author mainly develop the text
A. By following time order. B. By making comparisons.
C. By giving examples. D. By presenting a scientific study.
27. George Shull’s contribution to the world can be best described as
A. conventional. B. common. C. innovative. D. insignificant.
C
Recently researchers are discovering that learning is easier, quicker and more long-lasting if it involves the body. To some extent, the discovery should come as no surprise. Consider that many of us probably began to understand basic arithmetic(算术) by counting on our fingers before learning to count in our head.
Conventional thinking had it that as we grew, we became more able to think abstractly(抽象地), which might suggest teachers should help wean children off body gestures to prepare them for the adult world. But in truth, the physical world never really leaves our thinking. For example, when we process verbs such as lick, kick and pick, medical scanners show that the parts of our brain that control the muscles in our face, legs and hands become more active.
This theory is called embodied cognition(体验认知), and it suggests that what goes on in our minds comes from our actions and interactions with the world around us. It means that encouraging children to think and learn in a completely abstract way might actually make lessons harder for them to understand and remember.
Science is beginning to support the idea that actions really might speak louder than words in the classroom. Spencer Kelly, a psychologist at Colgate University in New York, has found that people spend three times as much time making gestures when the message they convey is particularly important. Kelly has also found evidence that students like a teacher better when that teacher uses arm and hand movements to emphasize points. Meanwhile, Susan Wagner Cook, a psychologist at the University of Iowa in Iowa City, has found that children pick up new concepts more effectively if they are taught to mirror and repeat the gestures their teacher uses, and that lessons involving words and gestures live longer in a student’s memory than lessons using words alone.
28. The underlined phrase “wean children off body gestures” in paragraph 2 means“ ”
A. let children be aware of body gestures.
B. encourage children to use body gestures.
C. give children an account of body gestures.
D. make children stop using body gestures.
29. According to embodied cognition, which of the following statements can be inferred
A. Our minds can decide our actions.
B. It encourages students to study in an abstract way.
C. Interacting with the surroundings is important for one's cognition.
D. Interacting with the world makes lessons harder for us to learn.
30. What can we learn from Spencer Kelly's study
A. Young students like to mirror their teacher's gestures.
B. Body movements can raise a teacher's popularity.
C. Body language is more powerful than spoken language.
D. Teachers use few body gestures when the message is important .
31. What is the text mainly about
A. A new finding about learning. B. Disadvantages of thinking abstractly.
C. The function of body language. D. A study on classroom teaching.
D
The commonly held belief that it takes 21 days to form a new habit can be traced back to a
1960 book by plastic surgeon Maxwel Maltz called Psycho-Cybernetics. In his work treating patients who had gone through facial reconstruction surgery, Maltz noticed that it typically took around three weeks for them to adjust to seeing their new faces in the mirror. He also found that individuals who had lost a limb still sensed “phantom(幻觉的)”pains in the missing arm or leg for about 21 days.
Based on these perceptions(认知) of recovery time after significant physical changes, Maltz theorized in his book that it likely takes a minimum of 21 days for the neurological path ways in our brains associated with old behaviors and habits to go away, and for new mental images and routines to take firm root. This idea of a standardized 21-day formation period for habits soon became widely accepted.
However, Maltz was drawing causal inferences rather than conducting strict scientific research. It wasn't until 2010 that health psychologist Phillippa Lally at University College London decided to properly study habit formation timelines. She designed a year-long experiment that tracked 96participants as they each established a single new habit of their choosing. Every day, subjects reported on whether they successfully performed their intended behavior that day as well as how automatic the action felt.
Lally' findings revealed that on average, it took 66 days before a habit became a normal part of a routine and felt automatic. But results varied widely, with habits forming anywhere from 18 days up to 254 days between individuals. Consistency (连 贯 性) was the key factor in successfully making a behavior habitual, with sometimes missing days not stopping overall progress.
This landmark study proved the assumed 21-day standard to be false and showed that a wide range of timelines are normal.
32. What is Maltz's assumption based on
A. A strict scientific research. B. Psychological work.
C. His personal observations. D. Carefully designed surveys.
33. Why did Lally's team conduct the research
A. To support Maltz's theory on habit formation.
B. To explore the factors in affecting habit formation.
C. To identify the timelines for establishing new habits.
D. To explain advantages of developing good behaviors.
34. What do we know about Lally's findings
A. It is harder to form a new habit than to stick to an old one.
B. There are large individual differences in forming habits.
C. Most participants took 66 days to make a behavior habitual.
D. Occasional stops have a big effect on the process of habit formation.
35. What is the best title for the text
A. Does It Really Take 21 Days to Build a New Habit
B. How Do We Develop Some Positive Daily Routines
C. What Are the Key Aspects to Establish a New Habit
D. When Is the Best Time to Start Positive Daily Routines
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分, 共 12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
We generally have goals over the course of a day or week, and can check them off our lists with little difficulty. 36 What if we have goals set for us by our boss that we need to achieve but just can't seem to get to What if you've procrastinated(拖延) too long on your goals and now you don't even know where to start
* Define the goal
Identifying the goal and deciding if it is still possible to do it is the first step. 37 There may be circumstances that prevented you from getting it done. Or maybe some other reason that needs to be addressed. Don't waste time being hard on yourself. Just start where you are now and see what you can do from this point onward.
* 38
Begin with prioritizing the steps you'll need to develop a reliable plan. Gathering the tools or skills you will need is a good place to start. Remember to ask for clarity if there is something standing in the way of understanding the project. Write out a schedule to ensure you are using your time and energy in a way that will work for you.
* Establish new habits
39 Make steps toward progress every day to keep going. Rewards may strengthen your efforts. Internal rewards might include feeling good about yourself, less stress, and accountability. Some examples of external rewards could be that you get paid for the job or receive some recognition for the work you've done.
* Take action
Become a doer by removing excuses and making a committed decision to attain your goal.Breaking your tasks down to individual steps can help you stay focused on the process. But with all of your planning, education, tools, and instructors, the bottom line is you have to find a way to get going and do it. 40 And what you learn along the way might just surprise you.
A. Make a new plan
B. Reassess your direction
C. Then ask yourself why you didn't do it.
D. Some are short-term and are achieved quickly and easily.
E. If you really want to achieve your goals, there's no replacement for action.
F. But what about the bigger goals we don't really want to do in the first place
G. Forming a habit requires repetition of the desired new action over a period of time.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which my teacher, Anne Mansfield Sullivan, came to me.
On the afternoon of that 41 day, I guessed from the hurrying to and from in the house that something unusual was about to happen, so I went to the door and 42 quietly on the steps, full of expectation.
Before my teacher came and educated me, I, a deaf, dumb(哑的) and blind 7-year-old girl, was like a tense and 43 ship without a compass(指南针) feeling its way in a thick fog, not knowing how near the 44 was. “Light! Give me light!” was the wordless cry of my soul, and the light of 45 shone on me in that very hour.
I felt 46 footsteps. I stretched out my hand 47 I would to my mother. Someone took it, and I was held close in the arms of her who had come to 48 all things to me, and more than all things else, to love me.
The morning after my teacher came, she led me into her room and gave me a 49 . When I had played with it a little while, she slowly spelled into my hand the word “d-o-l-l”. I was at once50 in this finger play and tried to imitate(模仿) it. When I finally succeeded in making the letters correctly, I 51 childish pleasure and pride. Running downstairs to my mother I held up my 52 and made the letters for doll. I did not know that I was spelling a word or even that words existed; I was simply making my fingers go in monkey-like imitation. In the days that followed I learned to spell in this uncomprehending (不理解的) way a great many words, 53them pin, hat and cup. 54 my teacher had been with me several weeks before I understood that everything has a 55 .
41. A. important B. normal C. potential D. enormous
42. A. bowed B. fled C. waited D. posed
43. A. excellent B. anxious C. incredible D. artificial
44. A. direction B. route C. destination D. tunnel
45. A. love B. favour C. vision D. pain
46. A. warning B. expanding C. wandering D. approaching
47. A. if B. as C. except D. what
48. A. share B. devote C. reveal D. witness
49. A. doll B. pin C. hat D. cup
50. A. distinct B. efficient C. accurate D. interested
51. A. was ashamed of B. was committed to C. was comprised of D. was overcome with
52. A. chin B. hand C. cheek D. chest
53. A. over B. within C. among D. during
54. A. But B. While C. Though D. Hence
55. A. role B. name C. theme D. credit
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分 15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容( 1个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。
China will establish a pilot free trade zone or FTZ in the Xinjiang Uygur autonomous region 56 (promote) high-quality development in the central and western regions, and better serve the Belt and Road Initiative, according to a guideline 57 (issue) by the State Council on Tuesday. The pilot FTZ will have three subzones in Urumqi, Kashgar and Khorgos, 58 covers a combined area of 179.66 square kilometers.
59 ( take) full advantage of its land and air ports, the Urumqi subzone will strengthen the construction of a land port-based national logistics (物流) center. It will also become an important platform for exchanges and cooperation 60 neighboring countries in Central Asia. Based on its advantageous location for international trade and logistics, the Kashgar subzone will grow 61 (it) export economy, placing emphasis on labor-intensive industries. Building on 62 strengths of cross-border cooperation, the Khorgos subzone will promote the development of cross-border logistics, tourism, and other modern service 63 (industry).
A high-quality FTZ with high standards 64 (establish) in three to five years, with a greater trade convenience, 65 (good) resource sharing, effective management, and the ability to drive the development of their surrounding areas.
第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你的好朋友Tom 是某校的交换生。他来信说因为书写不够美观整洁,在多次考试中作文得分都受到影响,这让他感到十分困扰。请你给 Tom回信,并针对他的问题给出建议。
内容包括:
1.表示理解; 2.提出建议; 3.表达希望。
注意: 1.写作词数应为 80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯;
3.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Tom,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Many years ago, after my college graduation, I finally took a job as the head coach at a school in Baxley, Georgia. It was a small school with a weak football program.
It was a tradition for the school's old team to play against the new team at the end of spring practice and then autumn practice. The old team had no coach, and they didn't even practice to prepare for the game. Being the coach of the new team, I was excited because I knew we were going to win. After all, my team attended at least one training session each week during the spring months, and I was delighted to see that they had mastered the basic skills such as short pass, cross pass, and man-for-man marking(盯人防守), more importantly, learning to team up with others. They trained hard and wanted to win the game. But to our great disappointment, we were defeated by the old team which seemed to be bound to lose!
I couldn't believe we had got into such a situation. My team was as embarrassed and depressed as I, lowering their heads and dragging their feet out of the football field. When I gathered them together to reflect why we lost the game, some students complained, “In a small school with a weak football program, failure is due!” Other students said that they didn't have enough time to make full preparations for it.
Listening to their reflection, I was lost in deep thought. Suddenly, a saying occurred to me, “Winners are made, not born.” My team might not be the number one team in Georgia, but they were depending on me. I had to change my attitude about their ability and potential. Instead of seeing my boys as losers, I should push and encourage them. I should also help them to see themselves differently, and build themselves into winners.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I decided to do everything to help them win the game.
The autumn practice ended and again we faced the old team.

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