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福建省三明市重点中学2023-2024高一上学期期中考试英语试题(含答案 无听力音频 含听力原文)

高一英语参考答案
第Ⅰ卷(选择题 共 95分)
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
1-5: CCBAA 6-10: CABAB 11-15: CBBAA 16-20: CABBC
第二部分:阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15小题:每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
A篇阅读 21-23: ACD B 篇阅读 24-27: CACA
C篇阅读 28-31: BADB D 篇阅读 32-35: BCDD
第二节(共 5小题:每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)
36 – 40:CAFGD
第三部分:语言运用(共三节, 满分 25 分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题:每小题 1分,满分 15分)
41- 45: BADBC 46-50: DACCD 51-55: ABBDA
第 II 卷(非选择题 共 55分)
第二节 单句填空(共 10小题,每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
56. to explore 57. responsibility 58. on 59. whose 60. leading
61. based 62. which 63. struck 64. actually 65. it
第三节 语篇填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
66. a 67. that/which 68. is believed 69. daily 70. purposes
71. specially 72. to give 73. as 74. closer 75. relaxed
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 完成句子(共 5小题,每小题 2分,满分 10 分)
76. 尽管历史跌宕起伏,中国因其古代文明一直延续至今而闻名于世。
77. 渔民、游客、酒店、住房和汽车都被 9.0级强震所引发的巨浪卷走。
78. The team that Lang Ping had built was falling apart.
79. By the Shang Dynasty, these symbols had become a well-developed system.
80. It seemed as if the world were coming to an end.
第二节 书面表达 (满分 15分)
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80. One possible version: (词数:100)
Dear Fred,
Glad to hear from you and I’m writing to tell you about the traditional culture course for
teenagers every Friday afternoon in our school lecture hall.
Aimed to enhance our understanding of traditional culture, this course is intended for
students of Grade one. We explore the origins of culture and appreciate different traditional art
forms, such as Spring Festival couplets and traditional Chinese painting, of which I like paper
cutting most. What’s more, we will be presented with some related books, pictures and videos.
So attractive is this course that all students speak highly of it.
If you are interested, please come and enjoy it. Looking forward to your coming.
Yours,
Li Hua
附:听力录音文本
Text 1
W: The lectures start at eight. Shall we meet at the gate ten minute ahead
M: Well, I’m not interested in the first one, so I’m not planning to arrive there until nine.
W: OK. I’ll see you then near the entrance.
Text 2
M: Do you often come here
W: Yes. The fruit and vegetables are much fresher than those at the market stalls or in the
supermarket.
M: It’s also enjoyable to pick them by ourselves.
Text 3
M: I think I’ve got everything in the car.
W: Let me check again. The tent, the sleeping bags, the food, the flashlight, the matches...
Maybe we should take a first aid kit, just in case.
Text 4
W: Oh, no! I have to hand in the report tomorrow, and my computer is broken.
M: Why not go to the students’ computer center You can use the computers there.
Text 5
M: Honey, what is the best gift of this year’s Christmas
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W: The blind box my friend Sarah gave to me.
M: Blind box Where did she get it
W: In a shop near our school. Most of my friends like the pleasure of opening a blind box.
Text 6
M: Hi, Mum. Please tell Miss. Morley that I will be late for school.
W: What has happened, Joey You left half an hour ago. You should have arrived.
M: Er... I fell asleep and didn’t get off at the right stop.
W: Where are you now
M: I don’t know. (6) I got off and walked to the opposite street, but I couldn’t find the bus
stop.
W: Calm down, boy. (7)Why don’t you call a taxi
Text 7
W: (8) I m considering keeping a pet, but I don’t know what to keep.
M: I have a pet dog. It seems to understand what I say. And it waits for me every time I’m
back home.
W: (9) But dogs are too energetic. I don’t have time to walk them.
M: What about cats They are quieter and more independent.
W: But my mother doesn’t like furry animals.
M: If so, you’d better go to a pet shop and ask the shop assistant.
Text 8
W: Joe, what club do you want to join
M: Dance club!
W: Really Have you ever learned dancing
M: Not at all. (10) I want to challenge myself and learn something new. Also, dancing is good
for health. What about you
W: Well, I haven’t decided yet. I want to join the music club because I enjoy listening to
music. (11) But members of the music club are required to perform at the annual art festival. I
can’t sing well.
M: In that case, the music club is indeed not a good choice. But there are so many choices.
W: That’s the problem. I don’t know which one suits me best.
M: (12) I m going to the students’ center to hand in the application form. How about going
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with me to learn more information
Text 9
M: (13) Susan, your class organized a charity sale in our school last week.
W: Yeah! Some of us talked about it in our class, and we asked the teacher if it was a good
idea.
M: Did he help you plan and run it
W: No, (14) but he supported us by collecting donations from the teachers.
M: Why did you come up with the idea
W: We wanted to raise money for our school library. The library needed new books, for the
books were old and torn, (15) but this sale was organized to buy computers that provide
e-books for us.
M: Was it successful
W: Of course. (16)We made full preparations in advance, such as putting up posters about the
sale and asking for donations. Finally, we received a lot of donations and raised enough
money to buy four computers.
M: If you organize such activity, tell me, for my parents are willing to take part in it, too.
Text 10
M: When I was in the first and second grade, I was very shy. I was good at writing stories, but
I never volunteered to read in class because I was afraid of speaking in front of my classmates.
(17) One day in the third grade, Mrs. Jones told us our class was going to put on a play and
asked who wanted to play the lead part. A few excited hands shot up. Mine, of course, was not
one of them. After school, she told me that she had me in mind to write the play. And she
asked whether I wanted to have a try. But she didn’t force me to. Just then, (18) I realized I
should take the opportunity to challenge myself. So I accepted the role. At the end of the play,
my classmates stood and cheered for me. (19) Though I made some mistakes, I didn’t regret
accepting the role. I was really grateful to her, for I became more and more confident after
that life-changing performance.
4
{#{QQABbQaAogCoABIAABhCAQXoCkAQkBAAAKoOQEAIIAAAAQFABAA=}#}三明市重点中学2023-2024学年高一上学期期中考试
英 语 试 题
本试卷共 12 页,满分 150 分,考试用时 120 分钟。
注意事项:
1、答题前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号和座位号填写在答题卡上,将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。
2、作答选择题时,每小题选出答案后,用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3、非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4、考生必须保持答题卡的整洁;考试结束后,将答题卡交回。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
When will the speakers meet
A. At 7:50. B. At 8:00. C. At 9:00.
Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a supermarket. B. At the market. C. On a farm.
What are the speakers doing
A. Checking the car. B. Preparing for camping. C. Doing some shopping.
Why does the man suggest the woman go to the computer center
To finish the report.
To get help from him.
To repair her computer.
What are the speakers talking about
A. A gift. B. A friend. C. A shop.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C
三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
Where is the boy now
A. In a school. B. At a bus stop. C. In a street.
How will the boy go to school probably
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. On foot.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8、9 题。
What are speakers mainly talking about
A. Whether to keep a pet. B. What to keep as a pet. C. Where to buy a pet.
What does the woman say about dogs
Dogs are too energetic.
Dogs can understand owners.
Dogs are quiet and independent.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 10 至 12 题。
Why does the man want to join the dance club
He has learned how to dance before.
He wants to try something new.
He is fond of dancing.
Why can’t the woman decide to join the music club
She doesn’t love singing.
She doesn’t have enough time.
She is worried about the performance.
What will the woman probably do next
Hand in the application form.
Go to the students’ center.
Apply to join music club.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 13 至 16 题。
What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter. B. Schoolmates. C. Brother and sister.
What did the teacher do to help
Collected donations.
Organized the activity.
Planned and ran the activity.
What was the raised money used to do
A. Buy computers. B. Buy new books. C. Help others.
What made the activity successful
A. The posters. B. The donations. C. The full preparations.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
When did the speaker give the performance
A. In the third grade. B. In the second grade. C. In the first grade.
Why did the speaker accept the role
His teacher forced him to.
He decided to challenge himself.
His parents agreed to see the performance.
How did the speaker feel about the performance
A. Regretful. B. Satisfied. C. Embarrassed.
What’s the purpose of the talk
To make a story.
To thank his parents.
To share his experiences.
第二部分:阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Beautiful Glowing Beaches Around the World
If you need a reminder that nature is awesome, here are some beaches around the world that naturally glow (发光). Time to add these to your travel list!
Gippsland Lakes, Australia
During the day, the Gippsland Lakes are like any other: you can swim, waterski, or sail. But at night, the landscape begins to glow due to bioluminescent algae (生物发光的藻类). In 2006, massive rainstorms caused large amounts of algae to enter into the lakes. It glows whenever the water is disturbed, but it has slowly faded with time, which is welcome news for the lakes’ ecosystem.
The Maldives
This glowing beach in the Maldives is just one of the attractive features of the nation. The sand on this beach glows in the dark because of sea shrimp ( 海 虾 ). These tiny organisms give out blue light for up to a minute, lighting up your path as you walk across the beach.
Halong Bay, Vietnam
Halong Bay is one of Vietnam’s most popular tourist destinations, but it’s not just because of its famous islands covered in green rainforests. At night, boat tours take people out on the water to see the blue-green light from the algae.
Dongying, China
The dreamlike sea in Dongying gives us a strong desire to travel unlike any other travel destination. The glow-in-the-dark algae is found mostly on the rock formations along the shoreline, which gives them a blue-green glow. Plus, it serves as a natural warning light if you’re swimming at night.
What can be inferred about the Gippsland Lakes
They may stop glowing over time.
They are lit by algae during the day.
They are frequently hit by rainstorms.
They tend to be dangerous for swimmers.
In what way is the beach in the Maldives different from the others
It isn’t a popular tourism destination.
It is surrounded by rain forests.
Its light source isn’t algae.
Its glow can last for a long time.
Where can you see glowing rocks
At the Gippsland Lakes.
In the Maldives.
At Halong Bay.
In Dongying.
B
Do you remember the name of your kindergarten teacher I do, mine. Her name was Mrs. White.
I don’t remember much about what we learned in her class, but my mother once told me that we used to write a lot. And I would bring back what I wrote and she would look at it and see there were so many mistakes. But no red corrections. And always a star. Sometimes even a Good! The scrawl (潦草的笔迹) in that worried my mother, so one day when she met Mrs. White for one of those Parent-Teacher meetings, she asked her why she never corrected my mistakes. Why she never red-pencilled in the right spellings of words or pointed out grammatical errors.
Mrs. White said, “The children are just beginning to get excited about using words, about forming sentences. I don’t want to dampen that enthusiasm with red ink. Spelling and grammar can wait...” What my mother gave me was the gist of what she could remember. But I grew up learning to use words with loving confidence just like that.
And it occurs to me that if Mrs. White had used her red pen more precisely I probably wouldn’t be telling you about this now. I look back now and think she must have been a rather extraordinary teacher, who restrained (限制) her red pen to allow the joy, wonder and excitement of expression flower.
I used to misspell “beautiful” a lot. I never could quite remember that the “e” went before the “a”. It annoyed my teacher in high school endlessly. Eventually the “e” s and “a” s that were wrong placed in “beautiful” settled into their right places. I am glad I didn’t wait on them though. “Pretty” is easier to spell but it doesn’t hold as much as you mean sometimes.
And thanks to Mrs. White I had no concerns about writing what I meant, even if I couldn’t quite spell it out. Because life isn’t pretty. It’s beautiful.
What worried his mother when the author was in kindergarten
The author’s unwillingness to go to school.
The teacher’s terrible attitude to the author.
The teacher’s ignorance of the author’s mistakes.
The author’s failure in exams and scrawl in homework.
What does the underlined word “dampen” in Paragraph 3 mean
A.Reduce. B.Gain. C.Awaken. D.Inspire.
What can we learn from Paragraph 5
The author preferred using the word “pretty”.
The teacher in high school disliked the author.
The author finally succeeded in spelling “beautiful” correctly.
The author owed all his own spelling problems to Mrs. White.
Which of the following can be used to describe Mrs. White
A.Far-sighted and tolerant. B.Enthusiastic and careful. C.Honest and brave. D.Generous and kind.
C
Little kids can pick up a new language pretty easily. It’s supposed to be far harder for older children. But that conclusion might not be correct. The window on when people can learn a language well appears to last until around age 17 or 18.
Earlier research had suggested we’re best at learning grammar in early childhood. Then we hit a dead end around age 5. But that’s not so, said Joshua Hartshorne and his colleagues.
Hartshorne surveyed tens of thousands of people online. He began by asking volunteers to take an online English grammar test. He used their answers to guess their native languages. After completing the test, volunteers answered questions about where they had lived, the languages they had spoken from birth and the age at which they first started learning English. It also asked how long they’d lived in an English-speaking country.
Hartshorne’s group analyzed responses from 669,498 native and non-native speakers of English. If people moved to a new country and began speaking English by age 10 to 12, they finally spoke it as well as those who had learned both English and another language from birth, the researchers found.
The results further showed that around age 17, people’s ability to learn grammar took a nosedive and that those who started learning English after age 10 or 12 never reached the same level of English proficiency ( 熟 练 ) as people who started younger. Why The researchers think it’s because they had fewer years to practice before their skills dropped off at 17.
However, they found language learning did not end at 17 and people’s English skills kept improving slightly until around age 30. This was true among both native speakers and those who learned English as a second language, the new study found.
How did Hartshorne do the survey
A. He paid his friends to do it. B. He carried out the survey online.
C. He surveyed thousands of students. D. He interviewed passers-by.
Which of the following best explains “took a nosedive” underlined in Paragraph 5
A. Fell. B. Changed. C. Counted. D. Rose.
What do the researchers say about language learning
A. It requires few skills. B. It keeps people smarter.
C. It ends at the age of 17. D. It needs more practice.
What is the text mainly about
A. A learning guide. B. A study on language learning.
C. An English speaker. D. A survey on grammar rules.
D
Researchers in Australia, who studied 1,500 people and their lifestyles, have found that having good friends can help you live longer. An American study of 10,000 students, over a period of 35 years, also found that if you make more friends than the average person at school, you’ll receive a higher salary in later life. People need good social skills at work to manage people and work in a team successfully. These are the same skills we use to make friends at school.
On average, teenagers aged between 15 and 17 have 500 “friends” on their favorite social networking site. Adults have130. So if you believe this research, you might live for a long time and be very rich.
However, according to Professor Robin Dunbar from the University of Oxford, it probably won’t make any difference. Dunbar studied the number of messages between users of a popular social networking website, each of whom had between 200 and 2,000 friends. He found that they always communicate with a maximum (最大量) of 150 people.
Among these 150, Dunbar believes that around five people are close friends. You’ve
most likely known them for a long time; they are probably old friends and you share all your good and bad experiences with them. Then there are ten more friends. Although they’re close to you, you may not keep in touch with them every week. Next there are 35 people who you might spend time with because of a shared interest. You aren’t close. And finally, there’s a large group of 100. You see or speak to these people at least once a year, but you don’t know them well. Beyond this number, Dunbar says, it’s impossible to make any relationship meaningful.
If you have a lot of online “friends”, try experiment: First take away anyone you haven’t been in touch with for a year. Then remove people you can’t remember and, finally, take away friends who you wouldn’t mind losing touch with. How many do you have left How many of these people are truly good friends According to the research, these are the only people that really matter.
What are the studies mentioned in Paragraph 1 mainly about
The number of friends you should have.
The advantages of having a lot of friends.
Some social skills you may need at work.
Some useful advice on how to make friends.
According to the American study, the most popular students at school .
are likely to spend more money.
may not be as popular at work.
seem to get better-paid jobs.
will work harder in later years.
What does the underlined part “this number” in Paragraph 4 refer to A. 10. B. 35. C. 100. D. 150.
What does the text mainly want to show
You need to spend more time with your friends.
There is a lot of research on the influence of friends.
Friends are sometimes more important than family.
It’s more important to have good friends than lots of friends.
第二节 (共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
Only by overcoming fear of failure can we achieve success in life. Here are some tips on how to remove fear and focus on success:
Understand that at times you make mistakes. 36 Before any of us learned how to walk, we crawled ( 爬 行 ). We got up, fell down and got up again. We continued the process until we could walk quite well.
37 Instead, view it as a stepping stone. Make certain that you learn from failure and then use what you have learned in future situations. Refuse to consider failure a character weakness. Doing so will only prevent you from achieving future success.
Remember that failure has produced many successes. 38 Albert Einstein’s teacher told him to quit school and said, “Einstein, you will never achieve anything!” Beethoven’s music teacher said he was hopeless to become a composer ( 作曲家). Henry Ford’s first two car companies failed.
Appreciate the benefits of failure. Ralph Waldo Emerson said, “All life is an experiment. The more experiments you try, the better you make.” It’s hardly possible for someone to achieve success for the first time he tries. 39
Believe in yourself. Rather than give up when things don’t work out, take it as a chance to build perseverance ( 坚持不懈). Remind yourself how many failures became successful because they wouldn’t give up. 40
Don’t take failure personally.
Work hard and try to avoid failure.
Realize that you are human and humans make mistakes.
Believe that you’ve got what it takes to work through the difficult times.
Making the same mistake again can lead to the failure in your future work.
Consider how many people in history had failed before they became successful.
In other words, your chances of getting things right on the first try are little.
第三部分:语言运用(共三节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A teacher gave his students a test. Most of the students finished all the questions without much effort 41 they all read the last one which was “What is the first name of the woman who 42 the school ”
All of the students thought that this question was some kind of 43 . They had all seen the cleaning woman many times during each day at school. It was 44 that she was tall and old, but how would they know her 45
So they all 46 their test paper, leaving the last question 47 . Just before the class ended, one of the students asked if the last question would count toward the results of the 48 .
“Sure.” said the teacher 49 .
He went on to say, “In your lives and careers, you will 50 many people and they are 51 individual, so they each are worth your 52 and care, even if all you do is 53 and say “Hello”.
Over the following days each of the students 54 the importance of finding out the name of the cleaner and introduced themselves. They all learned that cleaner’s name was Dorothy and they never forgot the 55 that everyone is important.
41.A.while B.until C.since D.after
42.A.cleans B.manages C.supports D.guards
43.A.pity B.risk C.story D.joke
44.A.natural B.clear C.possible D.unusual
45.A.address B.family C.name D.age
46.A.left behind B.lifted up C.put away D.handed in
47.A.unanswered B.open C.out D.unprepared
48.A.exercise B.experiment C.test D.match
49.A.anxiously B.vividly C.firmly D.secretly
50.A.love B.help C.respect D.meet
51.A.important B.unique C.intelligent D.honest
52.A.consideration B.attention C.discussion D.protection
53.A.look B.smile C.listen D.play
54.A.remembered B.proved C.explained D.realized
55.A.lesson B.opinion C.premise D.argument
第三部分 语言运用
第 II 卷
第二节 单句填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
根据句意,在空白处填入 1 个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I believe I’ll make new friends, and there is a lot (explore) at senior high.
Miss Smith is not only experienced in teaching, but has a strong sense of (responsible).
It dates back several thousand years to the use of longgu — animal bones and shells
which symbols were carved by ancient Chinese people.
This is the artist works are known all over the world.
Over the years, the system developed into different forms, as it was a time when people were divided geographically, (lead) to many varieties of dialects and characters.
It is a novel (base) on historical facts.
He gave me some reference books with I was not very familiar.
A powerful undersea quake (strike) the west coast of Indonesia’s Sumatra Island in 2004.
Smith, my new neighbour, looks serious, but (actual) he is very kind.
Don’t lose heart! Keep moving, and you can make to your goal.
第三节 语篇填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tea is a healthy drink. Drinking tea in China could be considered as an art and to help people achieve a sense of calm and renewed energy. It is also 66 way to enjoy life better.
Stories 67 are about the discovery of tea are different depending on the people who you ask, but we know that Chinese people have been drinking tea since Shennong, 5,000 years ago. Usually, tea 68 (believe) to be medicinal, and is so
central to 69 (day) life that an old Chinese saying includes tea in a list of seven important contents to be gathered each morning, along with firewood, rice, oil, salt, soy and vinegar.
Tea serves three primary 70 (purpose) traditionally in Chinese society: to show status, to bring people together and to improve wellness.
Drinking tea together is a sign of respect. In ancient times, “tribute tea”( 贡 茶 ) was
71 (special) kept for and presented to the Emperor. Tea still has a place in the life of the average people. It is common 72 (give) guests a cup of tea to welcome them into the home. But tea is more than a key of social customs. It is meant to act 73 a way in which people can become much 74 (close) to nature. Drinking tea out in nature will create a spiritual connection to the environment and make people feel
75 (relax).
第四部分 写作(共两节 满分 25 分)
第一节 英汉互译(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
China is widely known for its ancient civilization which has continued all the way through into modern times, despite the many ups and downs in its history.

Fishermen, tourists, hotels, homes and cars were swept away by huge waves caused by the strong earthquake that reached a magnitude of 9.0.

郎平之前已组建好的团队正处于崩溃的边缘。

到商朝时,这些符号已经变成一套完整的书写系统。(By...)
.
仿佛世界末日即将来临!( as if )
.
第二节 书面表达(满分 15 分)
假定你是李华,你的新西兰朋友 Fred 听说你校开设了“中国传统文化”课程,发来邮件询问,请你给他回复,内容包括:
课程的时间、目的及具体内容;
学生对课程的评价。
注意:1.写作词数应为 100 词左右;2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Fred,
Yours, Li Hua

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